A Christian Defense of the Gospel to the Muslims

Muslim Argument:
Jesus cannot be God since he made false predictions. In Matthew 10:23 Jesus says to his disciples, "I tell you the truth, you will not finish going through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes." The disciples went through the cities of Israel and Jesus still has not returned.
The second false prediction is found in Matthew 16:28 where Jesus states, "I tell you the truth some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom." The disciples have all died and Jesus has not come into his kingdom.
Finally, Jesus states in Matthew 24:34 his generation would not pass away until the fulfillment of all the prophecies leading to his second coming had occurred.
Christian Response:
There are no false predictions, but a misunderstanding of Jesus' words. Firstly, Jesus' saying "before the Son of Man comes" is not a reference to his second coming, but to his being reunited with his disciples after their evangelistic outreach. This becomes evident from Matthew 11:1 where it states that "after Jesus had finished instructing his twelve disciples, he went on from there to teach and preach in the towns of Galilee."
Hence, Jesus had departed into Galilee while the disciples were traveling throughout the towns of Israel. Afterwards, Jesus met up with the disciples where "they reported to him all they had done and taught." (Mark 6:30)
In regards to Matthew 16:28, Jesus was referring to the visible manifestation of his kingdom, where he would appear in glory and power. Jesus was promising his disciples that some of them would get a foretaste of how Jesus would appear at his return, where his second coming is to be accompanied by the proclamation of the two witnesses which scripture indicates must come before Christ. (Cf. Malachi 4:5; Rev. 11:1-12) This understanding becomes evident from Mark's account:

"And he said to them, `I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the kingdom of God come with power.' " Mark 9:1

The fulfillment of this promise took place shortly afterwards:

"After six days Jesus took with him Peter, James, and John the brother of James, and led them up a high mountain by themselves. There he was transfigured before them. His face shone like the sun, and his clothes became as white light. Just then there appeared before them Moses and Elijah talking with Jesus." Matthew 17:1-3

Hence, Jesus did appear in kingly power and glory alongside the two witnesses, fulfilling his promise to the disciples.
In relation to Matthew 24:34, there are two possible responses. First, the term "generation" is the Greek geneous, a synonym of genes which means race. Hence, the race of Jews whom Jesus was addressing would not pass away until the culmination of the age. Secondly, Jesus may not have been referring to his generation per se, but the generation that would witness the signs that Christ predicted would occur before his second coming. (Cf. Mat. 24:15-33)

Muslim Argument:
According to Mark Jesus cursed a fig tree for not having figs on it, even though "it was not the season for figs" (Mark 11:12-14). If Jesus is God, did he not know that it wasn't season for figs, and if so why would he curse it?
Christian Response:
There are three responses. Firstly, Jesus in his divine consciousness knows all things (Cf. John 21:17), and because of this fact he would have known beforehand whether the tree would bare figs or not. Secondly, before fig season something called taqsh sprouts on the tree as an indication of whether it would bear figs or not. Most likely, Jesus saw that there were no taqsh on the tree which would have indicated to him that it was barren.
Finally, Jesus might have been trying to teach a spiritual lesson. Figs are used in the Old Testament as a symbol for Israel:

"I found Israel like grapes in the wilderness; I saw your fathers as the firstfruits on the fig tree in its first season." Hosea 9:10 N.K.J.V.

Therefore, Christ could have been indicating to his disciples that Israel would suffer judgment before the culmination of the age. The following parable solidifies this point.

"Then he told this parable: `A man had a fig tree planted in his vineyard; and he came looking for fruit on it and found none. So he said to the gardener, "See here! For three years I have come looking for fruit on this fig and I still find none, Cut it down! Why should it be wasting soil?" He replied, "Sir, let it alone for one more year, until I dig around it and put manure on it. If it bears fruit next year, well and good; but if not, you can cut it down." ` " Luke 13:6-9 N.R.S.V.

For over three years Jesus ministered to Israel in order that they might come into repentance, but they were unwilling. Hence, God brought judgement upon the nation for their rejection of the Messiah. This judgement was manifested in the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem. (Cf. Mat. 23:37; Luke 19:41-44)

Muslim Argument:
Jesus uses what seems to be derogatory language. In Matthew 7:6 Jesus calls unbelievers dogs and swine, and in Matthew 15:26 Jesus likens both the Canaanite woman and Gentiles to dogs.
Christian Response:
Jesus was using common Jewish metaphors to illustrate an unbeliever's or pagan's total depravity. (Cf. Proverbs 26:1; 2 Peter 2:22; Rev. 22:14) The crowds would have understood that Jesus was obviously using metaphorical language, and was not literally calling someone a dog or swine.
In regards to Jesus' statement in Matthew 15:26, Christ was trying to illustrate a key point to his disciples. According to first century Jewish thought both Gentiles and women were held in low esteem. Jews regarded themselves as the children of God, whereas Gentiles were nothing more than house pets.
(Note: The Greek word used in this verse for dogs is kynarion, which properly translated means house pet or puppy [Strong's 2952]. Jesus' use of this term implies that just as a house pet has a place in the home of his master, so too do the Gentiles have a place prepared for them in God's kingdom)
Christ was trying to move his Jewish disciples, who had tried earlier to get rid of the Canaanite woman, to envy by the woman's persistence and display of great faith; a faith exemplified by someone who to them was nothing more than a house pet. In similar fashion, Jesus had used a Roman Centurion's faith in contrast to the Israelites' lack of faith:

"Now when Jesus heard this, he marveled, and said to those who were following, `Truly I say to you, I have not found such great faith with anyone in Israel. And I say to you, that many shall come from East and West, and recline at the table with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven; but the sons of the Kingdom shall be cast out into the outer darkness; in that place there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.' " Cf. Matthew 8:5-12

The Jews considered Romans as enemies which God would destroy when Messiah would appear. And yet here was Israel's Messiah commending the faith of such a one. Hence, Jesus was using Gentiles as examples for Israel to emulate, not look down upon.
(Note: The Quran also uses the phrases "dog", "apes", "swine", and "donkey" to refer to unbelievers. [Cf. 5:60; 7:175-177; 62:5])

Muslim Argument:
God is all-knowing. But according to the Bible, Jesus did not even know the day or hour of his second coming. (Cf. Mark 13:32)
Christian Response:
According to the Bible, Jesus was both God and Man at the same time. The one divine Person of Christ took on a real human nature without ceasing to be God. In Christ, both the nature of God and the nature of man were perfectly united in one Person. (Cf. Mat. 1:22-23; John 1:1, 14; Philip. 2:5b-7; Col. 2:9)
Hence, Jesus had both a divine and human consciousness. In his human consciousness, Jesus' knowledge was finite and limited. This is precisely why he had to grow in wisdom and knowledge. (Cf. Luke 2:40, 52)
Yet, Jesus in his divine consciousness was omniscient, having the same incomprehensible knowledge and wisdom that the Father has. (Cf. Mat. 11:27; John 21:17; Rev. 2:23b- cf.- Jer. 17:10)

Muslim Argument:
God is able to do all that he pleases. But according to John 5:19 Jesus could do nothing of himself.
Christian Response:
The biblical teaching on the Trinity is not that there are three independent gods each having his own will. Rather, the Bible teaches that there are three distinct, yet inseparable Persons of the Godhead who have one perfect will and who work in perfect harmony. They never work independently. When we read the verse in its entire context, we discover that this is precisely what Jesus was telling the Jews in John 5:19:

"Jesus gave them this answer: `I tell you the truth, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because WHATEVER the Father does THE SON ALSO DOES.'" NIV

In order for Christ to be able to do everything that his Father does implies that Jesus is God. Only God can do all that the Father does, since the Father does the things that God alone can do. This passage affirms the perfect unity and equality of the Father and Son, along with the Holy Spirit. (Cf. John 16:13)
(Note- It must be pointed out that at the Incarnation Christ took on both a real human nature and a human will. Therefore the one Person of Jesus had both a divine will alongside a human one while still remaining uni-Personal. [Cf. Matthew 26:42])

Muslim Argument:
God cannot die. But according to Christians, Jesus died on the cross. If this is so, how can God die and who was running the universe when Jesus was dead?
Christian Response:
This question commits several fallacies. First, the questioner assumes that when Christians say that Christ died this is intended to mean that Jesus ceased to exist for the three days he was in the tomb. This assumes "soul-sleep," i.e. that after death there is no more conscious existence until the body is resurrected. This is not what the Bible teaches.
Biblical death means separation, not annihilation. In fact, Scripture indicates that there are two types of separation. The first is the soul separating from the body at death, with the other referring to eternal separation from God in hell. (Cf. Luke 16:19-31; Philippians 1:23; Revelation 6:9-11, 20:14-15)
Jesus did not cease to exist when he died but rather his divine nature along with his human soul departed from his body at the point of death. (Cf. Luke 23:46) The fact that Jesus was still consciously existing at the same time his body lay in the tomb becomes evident in that Christ claimed that he would personally resurrect himself from the grave on the third day:

"Jesus answered them, `Destroy this temple AND I WILL RAISE IT AGAIN IN THREE DAYS.' The Jews replied, `It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?' But the temple he had spoken of WAS HIS BODY. After He was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said." John 2:19-22 NIV

"The reason my Father loves me is that I lay down my life-only to take it up again. NO ONE TAKES IT FROM ME, BUT I LAY IT DOWN OF MY OWN ACCORD. I have authority to lay it down AND AUTHORITY TO TAKE IT UP AGAIN. This command I received from my Father." John 10:17-18 NIV

These passages affirm that Jesus is God since only God can raise the dead, and that Jesus was consciously existing since had he been asleep he could not have raised himself from the tomb.
The second fallacy relates to the questioner asking who was running the universe during the time that Jesus had died. This assumes the belief in modalism, i.e. that there are not three distinct Persons who are God, but one Person who assumes three different roles. Christians do not believe that Jesus is the only Person within the Godhead, since both the Father and the Holy Spirit are fully God as well. Hence, even if death meant that Jesus ceased to exist for the three days his body lay in the tomb, the Father and the Holy Spirit were still active at this point since it was the Son alone who became man and died.

Muslim Argument:
If Jesus is God, who was praying to in the Garden and while on the cross (Cf. Mat. 26:39, 27:45-46)? Was he praying to himself? Besides, how can God pray?

Christian Response:
This question once again assumes modalism, the belief that Jesus is the only person within the Godhead. Yet, the fact is, Trinitarians do not believe that Jesus is the only Person within the Being of God, but that the Father and Holy Spirit are God as well. Therefore, Jesus was not praying to himself but to the Father.
Furthermore, prayer is intimate communion and fellowship with God. Hence, the three Persons of the Godhead have always had intimate communion among themselves. This is precisely why God does not need anyone outside of his own Being in order to have fellowship.

Since God is tri-Personal, all three Persons become the object of interpersonal communion and love.
Additionally, Jesus is Man as God intended man to be. Therefore, Jesus came to show us by example how we should live in accordance to the will of God, he being the perfect role model:

"To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example that you should follow in his steps." 1 Pet. 2:21 NIV

Hence, Jesus not only prayed in order to be in constant communion with the Father, but also to teach us how we should pray.
Finally, Jesus as the God-Man both prayed to the Father and commanded believers to pray directly to himself:

"I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. AND I WILL DO WHATEVER YOU ASK IN MY NAME, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. YOU MAY ASK ME FOR ANYTHING IN MY NAME, AND I WILL DO IT." John 14:12-14 NIV

In order for Jesus to be able to both hear and answer prayer he must be omnipotent (Almighty) since only an all-powerful Being can grant the requests of all who pray to him. He must also be both omniscient (all-knowing) and omnipresent (present everywhere) in order to know and hear the needs of all who call upon him. These qualities affirm that Jesus is God, since only God is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient as well as the Hearer of prayer.
Therefore, the fact that Jesus both prays and hears prayer affirms that he is one Divine Person who is both God and Man at the same time.
(Note: According to Quran 33:56 Allah prays for Muhammad:

"Lo! Allah and his angels pray [Arabic - yasalluuna] for the Prophet. O ye that believe! Pray for him [salluu alayhi], and salute him with all respect [sallimuu tasliimaa]."

Most translations of the Quran mistranslate the words yasalluuna and salluu as blessings, when in fact it literally means prayers. In fact, a devout Muslim will always recite the following prayer when mentioning Muhammad's name, sallullahu alahyi wa salaam- "the prayers of Allah be for him and his peace." Another time where the Quran indicates that Allah prays is found in S. 33:43:

"He it is Who send prayers upon you [yusalliii `alaykum], as do His angels..."

A Trinitarian can understand and accept the fact that because there are three Persons within the unity of God, it becomes natural for them to have communion among themselves in prayer. But for a singular Deity, having no plurality, to pray for Muhammad is inconceivable since who would Allah be praying to when praying for Muhammad?)

Muslim Argument:
According to Matthew 28:18, all authority was given to Jesus. If authority had to be given to Christ, that means that there is One greater than him who is doing the giving.
Furthermore, this means that Jesus cannot be God since he did not always have authority.
Christian Reponse:
According to the Holy Bible Jesus relinquished his authority in order to become man:

"Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus, who being (Gr.- huperchon) in very nature (morphe) God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man - he humbled himself and became obedient to death-even death on a cross." Phillippians 2:5-8 NIV

This passage is instructive since it affirms that Jesus willingly made himself nothing. This was not something forced upon him, but something that both he and the Father decided together.
When Jesus became a slave of both God and man, Christ subjected all his authority to the Father without ceasing to be God. The fact that Jesus still remained fully divine is seen by Paul's usage of the Greek huperchon (being) which is in the present participle tense. This Greek tense implies a continuous state of being or existence, implying that Jesus continued to exist in God's form even while becoming man on earth.
Therefore, Jesus did not cease to be God but ceased from exercising his authority as God. At his resurrection, Christ received back the authority he had before the Incarnation. He regained an authority which had always been his in the first place; he did not receive an authority which he did not have to begin with.

Muslim Argument:
In Mark 10:35-40, James, John and their mother requested that Jesus would grant the two disciples to sit on his right and left. Yet, Jesus replied that he could not grant such a request, since it had already been determined. How could Jesus be God if he was unable to even grant a request by his disciples?
Christian Reponse:
As we have already noted, Jesus refused to exercise his divine authority since he allowed himself to be a slave. And because he was God's servant, he became completely subject to the Father's will in every aspect of his existence on earth. And as the Father's slave, he could make no decisions until he fulfilled the will of the One who had sent him. (See above)

Muslim Argument:
God cannot be tempted. (Cf. James 1:13) Yet, Jesus was tempted by the devil. (Cf. Mat. 4:1) Jesus, therefore, cannot be God.
Christian Reponse:
It must be remembered that although Jesus was tempted he was still without sin. (Cf. Heb. 4:15)
Furthermore, James' meaning is not that no one can try to tempt God since many have tried (Cf. Deut. 6:16; Mal. 3:15; Mt. 4:7; Acts 15:10), but that there is nothing within God that would lead him to act upon the temptations. Similarly, although Jesus was tempted there was nothing within Christ that would cause him to act upon it, since he was perfect God and perfect Man.

Muslim Argument:
According to the Bible when a young man came to Jesus calling him good, Jesus responded, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone." (Mark 10:18) How can Jesus be God if he is not even as good as God?
Christian Reponse:
Jesus did not say that he was not good, but asked the rich man why does he call Jesus good. Jesus was trying to lead the man into questioning whether he really believed Jesus was absolutely good in the same sense that God is. If the rich man really believed Jesus was good, he should then give up everything for Christ. Being God, Jesus deserved unconditional love and self-sacrifice. This is precisely what Jesus demands the rich man to do:

"Jesus, looking at him, loved him and said, `You lack one thing; go, sell what you own, and give the money to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; then come, follow me." Mark 10:21 NRSV

The rich man must give up everything for Jesus if he wants to be perfect before God. Only God can demand this kind of devotion, a devotion which Jesus arrogates to himself. This point is brought out more clearly in Matthew 10:37-39:

"Whoever loves father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; and whoever loves son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me; and whoever does not take up the cross and follow me is not worthy of me. Those who find their life will lose it, and those who lose their life for my sake will find it." NRSV

Again in Luke 14:26-27, 33:

"Whoever comes to me and does not hate father and mother, wife and children, yes, even life itself, cannot be my disciple. Whoever does not carry the cross and follow me cannot be my disciple... So therefore, none of you can be my disciple if you do not give up all your possessions." NRSV

No Israelite prophet ever pointed others to himself, but pointed men to God. For Jesus to demand this kind of devotion affirms that he is God; otherwise this would be blasphemous for Jesus to say if he were only a prophet.
To solidify the point that Jesus was not denying that he was absolutely good in the same sense that God is, we quote the following passages:

"I am the GOOD Shepherd. The good shepherd lays his life down for the sheep... I am the GOOD Shepherd. I know my own and my own know me." John 10:11, 14 NRSV

Not only is Jesus affirming his absolute goodness, but also applies a title of Yahweh God to himself:

"Yahweh is my Shepherd, I shall not want." Psalm 23:1

"Give ear, O Shepherd of Israel, you who lead Joseph like a flock!" Psalm 80:1 NRSV

Jesus also claims to be absolutely sinless, having no unrighteousness within him whatsoever:

"Those who speak on their own seek their own glory; but the one who seeks the glory of him who sent him is true, and there is nothing false in him." John 7:18 NRSV

"And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him." John 8:29 NRSV
"Which of you convicts me of sin?..." John 8:46 NRSV

No one was able to point to even one sin which Jesus committed. For Jesus to be absolutely good strongly argues the case that he is God. Note the following syllogism:

Only God is absolutely good

Jesus is absolutely good

Therefore, Jesus is God.

Muslim Argument:
Christians often use Jesus' I AM statements in John, most notably John 8:58, as proof that Jesus identified himself as the I AM of Exodus 3:14. There, Yahweh tells Moses to tell Israel that his name is "`I AM WHO I AM'. He said further, `Thus you shall say to the Israelites, "I AM has sent me to you"'." NRSV
According to most biblical scholars the Hebrew phrase, ehyeh asher ehyeh, is more accurately translated as "I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE." This is due to the verb from which the phrase stems, hayah, which means "to be."
Therefore, Jesus' words have no connection with this passage.
Furthermore, the Greek translation of the Old Testament (called the Septuagint) renders Exodus 3:14 as Ego Eimi Ho On- "I Am The Being." Jesus in the Johanine gospel uses the term Ego Eimi, "I AM." He is never called HO ON.
Christian Reponse:
In response to Christ never being addressed as HO ON, this is simply not true. We find this phrase used of Christ in Revelation 1:7-8:

"Look! He is coming with the clouds; every eye will see him, even those who pierced him; and on his account all the tribes of the earth will wail. So it is to be. Amen.

"` I am the Alpha and Omega', says the Lord God, `The Being (Greek- HO ON) who is and who was and who is to come, the ALMIGHTY (pantokrator)'."

Jesus Christ, the coming pierced One, identifies himself as both The Being (HO ON) and as the Almighty. The phrase "who is and who was" refers to the eternal nature of God:

"And the angels of the waters say, `You are just, O Holy One, who are and who were, for you have judged these things; because they shed the blood of saints and prophets, you have given them blood to drink. It is what they deserve!' And I heard the altar respond, `Yes, O Lord, the ALMIGHTY (pantokrator), your judgements are true and just!'" Rev. 16:5-7 NRSV

Hence, Jesus in Revelation 1:8 is claiming to be the eternal God.
Secondly, Jesus' I AM passages tie in with the Hebrew ANI HU references of Isaiah:

"Listen to me, O Jacob, and Israel, whom I called: I AM HE (Ani Hu); I am the First, and I am the Last." Isa. 48:12 NRSV

That the phrase I AM implies Deity is clearly seen in the following verses:

"Now then, listen, you wanton creature (i.e. Babylon), lounging in your security and saying to yourself, `I am (LXX- Ego Eimi), and there is none besides me..." Isa. 47:8 NIV (Cf. Isa. 47:10)

God rebukes Babylon for claiming to be the I AM, believing herself to be a God like Yahweh. Hence, I AM is used to denote absolute Deity and sovereignty, being used as a synonym for Yahweh.
Compare Yahweh's words with Jesus:

"Then Jesus, knowing all that was to happen to him, came forward and asked them, `Whom are you looking for?' They answered, `Jesus of Nazareth.' Jesus replied, `I AM HE'... When Jesus said to them, `I am he,' they stepped back and fell to ground." John 18:4-6 NRSV

The fact that the soldiers fell back when Jesus uttered the words "I AM" affirms that the phrase served to identify Christ as Yahweh. Otherwise, there would be no reason for the soldiers' falling down to the ground.

"When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he placed his right hand on me, saying, `Do not be afraid; I am the first and the last, and the living one. I WAS DEAD, and see I am alive forever and ever, and I have the keys of Death and Hades'." Rev. 1:17-18 NRSV

No matter from what perspective we look at it, there is no escaping the fact that Jesus does identify himself as Yahweh God.

Muslim Argument:
Jesus commanded his disciples to baptize "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit." (Cf. Mat. 28:19) Yet, the disciples baptized in Jesus' name instead. (Cf. Acts 2:38)
Christian Reponse:
There is a confusion between the method of baptism, with the authority given to baptize. Jesus is prescribing the method by which believers are to baptized, whereas the disciples were pointing to the authority they received from Jesus to perform this method of baptism:

"And he said to them, `Thus it is written, that the Messiah is to suffer and to rise from the dead on the third day, and that repentance and forgiveness of sins is to be proclaimed in his name to all nations..." Luke 24:46-47 NRSV

"And a man lame from birth was being carried in... But Peter said, `I have no silver or gold, but what I have I give you; in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, stand up and walk.' And he took him by the right hand and raised him up; and immediately his feet and ankles were made strong... `The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our ancestors has glorified his servant Jesus, whom you handed over and rejected in the presence of Pilate, though he had decided to release him. But you rejected the Holy and Righteous One and asked to have a murderer given to you, and you killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead. To this we are witnesses. And by faith in his name, his name itself has made this man strong, whom you see and know; and the faith that is through Jesus has given him this perfect health in the presence of all of you'." Acts 3:2, 6-7, 13-16 NRSV

Muslim Argument:
According to Christians, Jesus is the Father's Son. Yet, according to both Matthew 1:20 and Luke 1:35 Jesus was conceived supernaturally to the virgin Mary by the Holy Spirit. This makes the Holy Spirit Jesus' father.
Christian Reponse:
This question assumes that Christians believe that Jesus became God's Son at the virgin conception. This is not what Christians believe. Jesus is the eternal Son of God:

"... I am the bread that came down from heaven." John 6:41 NIV

"I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father." John 16:28 NIV
"So now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed... Father I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory, which you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world." John 17:5, 24 NRSV

Therefore, the Holy Spirit conceived the human nature of Christ; he did not conceive the eternal Person of Christ.

3. THE PLAN OF SALVATION

Muslim Argument:
Jesus' death is a violation of the clear OT commands prohibiting human sacrifices. Since Jesus was also under the Law (Cf. Gal. 4:4), his death would be an express violation of the commands of God which did not allow for humans to be put to death, only animals.
Christian Reponse:
Actually, there is no express command forbidding adult human sacrifices. What is forbidden is the sacrifice of children as a means of appeasing the pagan gods. (Cf. Lev. 18:21, 20:2-5; Deut. 12:31, 18:10; 2 Kings 16:3, 17:31, 21:6, 23:10; Jer. 7:31, 32:35; Ezek. 20:31) This is not to imply that the Bible allows for adult sacrifices, but rather to point out what is actually stated within inspired Scripture itself.
Secondly, the reason why these pagan rituals were abhorrent to God is because it not only entailed idol worship which was an abomination all by itself, but also included the death of innocent lives:

"They did not destroy the peoples as the Lord had commanded them, but they mingled with the nations and adopted their customs. They worshiped their idols, which became a snare to them. They sacrificed their sons and their daughters to demons. They shed innocent blood, the blood of their sons and daughters whom they sacrificed to the idols of Canaan, and the land was desecrated by their blood." Psalm 106:34-38

"... for they have committed adultery and blood is on their hands. They committed adultery with their idols; they even sacrificed their children, whom they bore to me, as food for them." Ezek. 23:37

Again, the "blood on their hands" is linked with Israel sacrificing their children to idols.

"For they have forsaken me and made this place of foreign gods; they have burned sacrifices in it to gods that neither they nor their fathers nor the kings of Judah ever knew, and they have filled this place with the blood of the innocent. They have built the high places of Baal to burn their sons in the fire as offerings to Baal- something I did not command or mention, nor did it enter my mind." Jer. 19:4-5

Israel is accused of filling the land with innocent blood, i.e. the murder of innocent lives who had committed no transgressions. Hence, child sacrifices were not only wrong because they were done to appease the pagan deities, but because it was murder and this is expressly forbidden in the Bible (Cf. Ex. 23:7: do not put an innocent or honest person to death)
However, the Mosaic Law did allow for the guilty to be put to death if they intentionally broke an express command which carried with it the death sentence. (Cf. Ex. 31:14-17; Deut.19:11-13)
Since Jesus "became sin for us" (cf. 2 Cor. 5:21; 1 Peter 2:24) and since "the LORD laid upon him the iniquity of us all" (cf. Isa. 53:6) his death, judicially speaking, fell under the bounds of the Law since he was guilty after that point. Therefore, Jesus' death from a legal standpoint was morally acceptable since his purpose in coming to this world was to take upon himself the punishment we deserved because of our sins.
To summarize, the Holy Bible prohibits the death of innocent children who committed no wrong. Since Jesus was neither a child nor innocent after taking our sins, his death did not violate an express command.
Thirdly, Jesus willingly died in order that others might live. (Cf. Mark 10:45; John 10:17-18) We often consider individuals who sacrifice their lives for others as heroes, i.e. a person who takes a bullet in order to save his friend or soldiers who die to protect their country etc. In the same manner, Jesus' willingness to die on the cross was the greatest display of his unconditional love for others, sparing them from the eternal wrath of God in hell.
Finally, God willed for Jesus to be the final and perfect atoning sacrifice, being "the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world." (Cf. John 1:29) God is sovereign and can make such decisions without anyone holding him accountable for it. Man answers to God, God answers to no one.

Muslim Argument:
Why was it necessary for God to send his eternal Son to die for sinners. Couldn't God have simply forgiven sinners instead of having his Son murdered?
Christian Reponse:
We must first point out that God did not murder his Son. It was the will of The Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit that the Son should lay his life down for sinners. This was to demonstrate both God's holiness and infinite love for man:

"For even the Son did not come to be served, but to serve, and lay his life down as a RANSOM for many." Mark 10:45 NIV

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. THIS BREAD IS MY FLESH WHICH I WILL GIVE FOR THE LIFE OF THE WORLD." John 6:51 NIV
"I am the good shepherd; I know my sheep and my sheep know me- just as the Father knows me and I know the Father- AND I LAY DOWN MY LIFE FOR THE SHEEP... The reason my Father loves me is that I LAY DOWN MY LIFE- ONLY TO TAKE IT UP AGAIN. NO ONE TAKES IT FROM ME, BUT I LAY IT DOWN OF MY OWN ACCORD..." John 10:14-15, 17-18a NIV
"God presented him (Jesus) as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left sins unpunished- he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus." Rom. 3:25-26 NIV
"But God demonstrates his own love for us in this: While we were still sinners, Christ died for us." Rom.5:8 NIV

Christ willingly laid down his life in order that others might live. We often look up to and admire men who willingly give up their lives to defend either their families or country. Their deaths are considered heroic and a demonstration of unconditional love, not murder or suicide. Hence, Jesus' willingness to die for unworthy sinners is the greatest display of God's infinite and unconditional love for fallen humanity.
As Scripture indicates, Christ's death was necessary in order to satisfy God's infinite holiness and justice. For sin to be forgiven, a sacrifice needed to be made in order for God to maintain his holiness. Otherwise, God's justice and holiness would be severely compromised. The Bible indicates that God cannot dwell in the presence of sin without incurring his wrath:

"For you are not a God who delights in wickedness; evil will not sojourn with you. The boastful will not stand before your eyes; you hate evildoers. You destroy those who speak lies; the LORD abhors the bloodthirsty and deceitful." Psalm 5:4-6 NRSV

"Your eyes are too pure to behold evil, and you cannot look on wrongdoing..." Habakkuk 1:13 NRSV

This is precisely why God cannot let sin go unpunished, since his holiness will not allow it to continue. He will not acquit the sinner without there being a payment for the crimes committed:

"Keep far from a false charge, and do not kill the innocent and those in the right, for I will not acquit the guilty." Exodus 23:7 NRSV

God also does not take pleasure in the death of any soul, but that the wicked turn from their ways and live. (Cf. Ezek. 33:11; 2 Pet. 3:9)
Therefore, in order for God to pardon repentant sinners while remaining holy and just, someone had to take the consequences of sin which entailed physical and spiritual death. By death is meant the soul separating from the body in the physical sense, with the body returning to the dust. And in the spiritual sense it refers to broken communion with God:

"And to the man he said, `Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten of the tree about which I commanded you, "You shall not eat of it," cursed it is the ground because of you; in toil you shall eat of it all the days of your life; thorns and thistles it shall bring forth for you; and you shall eat the plants of the field. By the sweat of your face you shall eat the bread until you return to the ground, for out of it you were taken; you are dust, and to dust you shall return'." Genesis 3:17-19 NRSV

"Rather, your iniquities have been barriers between you and your God, and your sins have hidden his face from you so that he does not hear." Isa. 59:2 NRSV

The sacrifice had to be made by one who had infinite value since man's value is finite and cannot atone for all of mankind's sin:

"Truly no ransom avails for one's life, there is no price one can give to God for it. For the ransom of life is costly, and can never suffice that one should live on forever and never see the grave." Psalm 49:7-9 NRSV

This is precisely why God had to come down and ransom man, since only God is infinite in value:

"But God will ransom my soul from the power of Sheol for he will receive me." Psalm 49:15 NRSV

But in order for God to pay the price of sin fully and satisfy his infinite holiness he had to take on a human nature. As was noted, part of the consequence of sin is that the soul of man separates from his body as the flesh returns to the dust. God is Spirit (John 4:24), and must therefore take on a human nature in order to experience physical death.
This nature also had to be free from the stain of original sin, since all who are descended from the first man inherit a corrupt human nature. (Cf. Rom. 5:12-14; Gen. 8:21; Psalm 51:5, 58:3)
Therefore, the Savior had to be born of a virgin whose womb would be made holy in order for him to be without sin:

"And Mary said to the angel, `How can this be since I have no husband?' And the angel said to her, `The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the most high will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God.' " Luke 1:34-35 RSV

Had he not been born supernaturally by God's Holy Spirit, he would have then needed a savior to free him from sin.
The cross becomes necessary for God to demonstrate both his love and holiness. If God were to simply forgive without demanding payment for sin, his holiness would have been less than his love. On the other hand, if God were to just punish without allowing the possibility of reconciliation and forgiveness than his love would have been severely compromised. Either way, God would be less than perfect since he would be greater in one of his qualities, and less than perfect in the other.
Hence, Jesus' death on the cross clearly demonstrates both God's perfect holiness and his infinite love for man. No other religion is able to claim this perfect balance for their deities.

Muslim Argument:
The Bible indicates that Christ was not the only sinless person. Oftentimes, scripture uses the term "righteous" to indicate one who is blameless:

"And they (Zachariah and Elizabeth) were righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless." Luke 1:6

"My little children, these things I write to you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous." 1 John 2:1
"I say unto you, that even so there will be more joy in heaven over one sinner that repenteth, more than over ninety and nine righteous persons, who need no repentance." Luke 15:7

"I came not to call the righteous, but sinners into repentance." Luke 5:32

"Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous." 1 John 3:7

All these verses affirm that there were many who were sinless like Christ, and did not need Christ to die for them.
Christian Reponse:
We provide a verse by verse refutation of this erroneous understanding of Scripture. First, it should be pointed out that the word for "righteous" is the Greek term dikaioo. The word, dikaioo and its various forms, is a legal term used judicially to declare one just, not guilty. It does not mean one who is sinless.
There are two ways one can be declared just before God. The first is to be completely perfect in every aspect of one's life, something which no one can ever attain. The only person to be absolutely perfect is Jesus Christ. The second manner is to be declared righteous solely by God's grace. This entails a blood sacrifice for the covering over of sins:

"For the life of a creature is in the blood, and I have given it to you to make atonement for yourselves on the altar; it is the blood that makes atonement for one's life." Leviticus 17:11 NIV

"In fact, the law requires that nearly everything be cleansed with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins." Hebrews. 9:22 NIV

The only problem with animal sacrifices is that in the eyes of God animals are not equal in value to man. Therefore, animal sacrifices could only cover sin temporarily. This is why the Israelites had to continuously offer sacrifices.
God sent Christ as the sacrificial Lamb who by his death on the cross, offered himself as a sacrifice of infinite value covering over the sins of the whole world. His blood not only covers sin, but it completely eradicates it; something which animal sacrifices could not do:

"The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!' " John 1:29 NIV

"But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus Christ, his Son, purifies us from all sin." 1 John 1:7
"For Christ did not enter a man-made sanctuary that was only a copy of the true one; he entered heaven itself, now to appear for us in God's presence. Nor did he enter heaven to offer himself again and again, the way the high priest enters the Most Holy Place every year with blood that is not his own. Then Christ would have to suffer many times since the creation of the world. But now he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to do away with sin by the sacrifice of himself." Heb. 9:24-26 NIV

Keeping in mind that it is the blood that justifies one before God, we proceed to the verses in question.
In regards to Zachariah and Elizabeth being blameless, one of Zachariah's duties as a Levitical priest of the division of Adonijah (Cf. Luke 1:5) was to offer sacrifices once a year, first for his own sins and then for the people. (Cf. Lev.16:1-34). Therefore, Zachariah was blameless before God because of his observance of the commands which included animal sacrifices for his sins. His righteousness was not based on him being sinless.
As far as 1 John 3:7 is concerned John is not implying that believers are sinless, since he also states:

"If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us... If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word has no place in us." 1 John 1:8, 10 NIV

John's point is that we have been made righteous in Christ, since "the blood of Jesus Christ, his Son, cleanses us from all sin." (Cf. 1 John 1:7)
The part about the ninety-nine righteous who do not need to repent in Luke 15:7 was not due to the fact that they were sinless. Jesus was mentioning a parable about a Shepherd who would leave ninety-nine of his sheep in order to chase after that one who is lost. (Cf. Luke 15:1-6)
Christ was addressing the self-righteous Pharisees who were murmuring against him for sitting and eating with sinners. Jesus' point was not that there were sinless individuals, but rather that God rejoices over those persons who acknowledge their sins, humbling themselves before their Creator. This was the purpose for Christ coming into the world, to search after lost sinners and bring them back to the flock of God. Furthermore, God does not take pleasure in self-righteous hypocrisy, individuals who think they are more righteous and better than others. This is precisely what the Pharisees thought of themselves, Jews who were far more righteous than the sinners and tax collectors whom Jesus was dining.
Finally, Jesus elsewhere likens himself to a Shepherd:

"I am the good Shepherd; I know my sheep and my sheep know me- just as the Father knows me and I know the Father- and I lay down my life for the sheep. I have other sheep that are not of this sheep pen. I must bring them also. They too will listen to my voice, and there shall be one flock and one shepherd." John 10:14-16 NIV

It is Jesus, as the Shepherd, who searches after the lost sheep, leaving behind the ninety-nine. This indicates that the ninety-nine were not righteous because they were sinless, but because they belonged to Jesus. Therefore, the point of the parable is to show that it is Jesus who both brings the sheep into the flock and who also justifies them; it has absolutely nothing to do with one being sinless.
(Note: For the answer to Luke 5:32, see the above point on Luke 15:6.)

Muslim Argument:
According to Jesus in Matthew 18:6, children are sinless:

"But whoever causes one of these little ones who believe in me to sin, it would be better for him to have a great millstone fastened round his neck and to be drowned in the depth of the sea."

Jesus is basically indicating that children are without sin since someone must cause them to sin.
Christian Reponse:
Again, Jesus is not saying that children in and of themselves are sinless. Rather, Jesus is affirming that those children WHO BELIEVE IN HIM are declared righteous, since they have been justified through Christ. This is reiterated in the verse before it:

"And whoever welcomes a little child like this IN MY NAME welcomes me." Mat. 18:5

Again, in Matthew 19:13-14 we are told:

"Then little children were brought to Jesus for him to place his hands on them and pray for them. But the disciples rebuked those who brought them. Jesus said, `Let the little children COME TO ME, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of heaven belongs to such as these.' "

Hence, a person must come and wholeheartedly embrace Christ like the children did. This is the kind of devotion Christ demands, total dependency upon him in all aspects of one's life.
This again affirms that justification comes solely through Christ.

Muslim Argument:
Salvation according to Jesus comes from observing the commandments:

"And behold, one came up to him, saying, `Teacher, what good deed must I do, to have eternal life?' And he said unto him, `Why do you ask me about what is good? One there is who is good. If you would enter life, keep the commandments.' " Mat. 19:16-17

"And behold, a lawyer stood up to put him to the test, saying, `Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?' Jesus said, `What is written in the Law? How do you read?' And he answered, `You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your strength, and with all your mind; and your neighbor as yourself.' And he said to him, `You have answered right; DO THIS, and you will live.'" Luke 10:25-28
"For I say to you, that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the scribes and Pharisees, you shall not enter the kingdom of heaven." Mat 5:20 NASB

Christian Reponse:
Jesus is actually teaching the exact opposite. His point is to show the impossibility of achieving salvation by works of the Law. This point is clearly brought out by Christ throughout his sermon in Matthew:

"You have heard that it was said, `Do not commit adultery.' But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart." Mat 5:27-28 NIV

"You have heard that it was said, `Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.' But I tell you: Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, that you may be sons of your Father in heaven. He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous. If you love those who love you, what reward will you get? Are not even tax collectors doing that? And if you greet only your brothers, what are you doing more than others? Do not even pagans do that? Be PERFECT, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect." Mat. 5:43-48 NIV

These are just some examples of the righteousness which Jesus demands that surpasses the righteousness of the Pharisees and scribes. This righteousness is impossible to attain by human efforts since it must perfectly duplicate God's righteousness. This demand for perfection is reiterated by Christ to the rich man:

"Jesus answered, `If you want to be PERFECT, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.' " Mat. 19:21 NIV

The perfection that God demands comes from surrendering one's life to Christ. It is Jesus who justifies believers by the righteousness he attained through his perfect obedience to the Law.
When someone surrenders his life to Jesus, God imputes Christ's righteousness to his account. From there, God empowers the individual by the Holy Spirit to fulfill God's righteous requirements. This righteousness is not to achieve salvation, but is a sign that one has been saved:

"But now a righteousness from God, apart from the law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe." Rom. 3:21-22 NIV

As the apostle Paul states, the righteousness that comes through faith in the Messiah had been foretold beforehand in the Old Testament:

"After the suffering of his soul, he will see the light of life and be satisfied; by his knowledge my righteous servant will justify many, and he will bear their iniquities." Isa. 53:11 NIV

"The days are coming," declares the LORD, "when I will raise up to David a righteous Branch, a King who will reign wisely and do what is just and right in the land. In his days Judah will be saved and Israel will live in safety. This is the name by which he will be called: The LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS." Jer. 23:5-6 NIV

"Seventy `sevens' are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in EVERLASTING RIGHTEOUSNESS, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the most holy... after the sixty `sevens,' the Anointed One (Messiah) will be cut off and have nothing." Daniel 9:24, 26

According to these passages, Messiah's death would usher in the righteousness of God and would also atone for sin.

"Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. Because through Christ Jesus the law of the Spirit of life set me free from the law of sin and death. For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the sinful nature, God did by sending his Son in the likeness of sinful man to be a sin offering. And so he condemned sin in sinful man, in order that the righteous requirements of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the sinful nature but according to the Spirit." Rom. 8:1-4 NIV

"God made him sin who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God." 2 Cor. 5:21 NIV
"For it is by grace that you have been saved, through faith; it is not of yourselves. It is the gift of God, and not of works lest anyone should boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus to do good works which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them." Ephesians 2:8-10

Hence, it is the unanimous testimony of Scripture that man is justified by the imputed righteousness of Christ, since one can never achieve the perfect righteousness of God apart from him.
As far as Jesus' statement to the lawyer in Luke 10:25-28 is concerned, again Christ's point is that if the lawyer is able to do all that is required in the Law he will obtain salvation. But the problem is that no one can attain the perfection which God demands, "for all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God." (Cf. Rom. 3:23)
Because "there is not a righteous man on earth who does what is right and never sins," since "all have turned aside," and "have become corrupt; there is no one who does good, not even one," each individual needs Christ's imputed righteousness. Otherwise, no one can stand justified before God. (Cf. Ecclesiastes 7:20; Psalms 14:3)

Muslim Argument:
Jesus taught, "Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink." John 6:54-55 NIV
According to Matthew 26:27-28, Jesus gave the disciples the cup of wine and said, "Drink from it, all of you. This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins." NIV
If this is meant to be taken literally, why do we not find anyone preserving the blood of Jesus as it flowed from his body while on the cross? Furthermore, this would be teaching cannibalism, something forbidden in scripture.
Christian Reponse:
Jesus' point is not that we are to partake of his flesh in a literal sense, but in a spiritual manner. This partaking of Christ comes from embracing his words in our lives:

"The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you are Spirit and they are life. Yet there are some of you who do not believe." John 6:63-64 NIV

Jesus was indicating that he was going to lay his life down that the world might live through him:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world." John 6:51 NIV

Blood symbolizes the life of the creature as it is written, "For the life of the creature is in the blood..." (Cf. Lev. 17:11) Therefore, the cup was symbolic of Jesus' life being laid down for sinners:

"Just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many." Mat. 20:28 NIV

It does not mean that one literally drinks Jesus' blood. Furthermore, as was indicated, Jesus' blood being shed was necessary to appease God's holiness so that sinners could stand justified before him. There is no hint of cannibalism whatsoever.

Muslim Argument:
According to Christians, Adam's sin brought condemnation on all flesh. This necessitated a divine Redeemer to come down from heaven to save man. But according to Ezekiel 18:1-24 a person will not be held accountable for someone else's sins.
Christian Reponse:
This is a misunderstanding of what Christians mean by Original Sin. It is our belief that we are not condemned because of Adam's sin, but because of Adam we inherit a sinful nature.(Cf. Psalm 51:5, 53:8; Ephesians 2:3) Because of this sinful nature, we are naturally inclined to sin. (Cf. Rom. 7:15-24)
Ezekiel's point is that anyone who sins shall die. Yet, all have sinned and become deserving of death. Hence, freedom from the bondage of sin and death comes only through Jesus Christ:

"Jesus replied, `I tell you the truth, everyone who sins is a slave to sin. Now a slave has no permanent place in the family, but a son belongs to it forever. So if the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed.' " John 8:34-36 NIV

Muslim Argument:
According to Hosea 6:6, God does not desire sacrifices. He rather desires one to be merciful and obedient to him. This point is reiterated by Jesus in Matthew 9:13.
Christian Reponse:
It is not either/or, but rather God desires both. The point in Hosea is that sacrifices in and of themselves are insufficient. Sacrifices must follow sincere repentance and obedience to God's commandments, something Israel did not do:

3. THE PLAN OF SALVATION

A Christian Defense of the Gospel to the Muslims

1. THE NATURE OF GOD

2. THE NATURE OF CHRIST