Charge #2
Numbers 23:19 states that "God is not a man that he
should lie, or a son of man that he should repent." Yet, Jesus was both man
and son of man. (C.f. Matthew 16:13)
Response
This passage is not denying that God could take on human form but that he is
not man by nature, and as such cannot change his mind nor lie as is common for
men to do. That this is the correct interpretation of the passage becomes quite
evident since the Old Testament explicitly affirms that God both appears in
human form (called theophanies) and will eventually take on an actual
human nature:
"And Jacob was left alone; and there wrestled a man with
him until the breaking of the day...And Jacob called the name of the place
Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved."
Genesis 32:24,30
"For to us a child is born, to us a Son is given; and the
government shall be upon his shoulders. For he will be called Wonderful,
Counselor, Mighty God, Father of Eternity, the Prince of Peace."
Isaiah 9:6
Hence, to use this verse in Numbers as a case
against the Incarnation is fallacious.
Charge #3
Exodus 33:20 clearly states that no one can see God and
live, and yet Jesus was seen.
Response
The passage does not deny that God can appear in human form, but that no man
can behold the unveiled glory of God's essence in its fullness. That is
precisely why God appears in human form, so that man may see him face to face.
The fact that man can view a veiled form of God is affirmed in Exodus 24:10-11
where we are told that the Israelites "saw the God of Israel. And there
was under His feet as it were a paved stone, and it was like the very
heavens in its clarity...so they saw God..."
Charge #4
Job 25:4 records that a man born of a woman cannot be
clean before God, a statement reiterated in 15:14. Jesus was born of a
woman.
Response
It must be stated that the Bible accurately records events and conversations
without necessarily condoning them. For instance, Genesis records the fact that
Lot's daughters got their father drunk in order to have sex with him,
impregnating themselves. (C.f. Genesis 19:30-38)
Or that Samson went in and slept with a harlot. (C.f. Judges 16:1)
The Bible records these stories not because it condones such actions, but
that these events did actually take place, demonstrating man's total depravity.
It is in this manner in which the Bible records these Joban passages; not
because it affirms them, but that these words were actually uttered by Job's
friends, Eliphaz the Temanite (c.f. 15:14) and Bildad the Shuhite (c.f. 25:4)
That the Bible disagrees with these men is clear from God's own words to
them:
"And it was so, that after the LORD had spoken these words unto
Job, the LORD said to Eliphaz the Temanite, `My wrath is kindled against
thee and against thy two friends: for ye have not spoken of Me the thing that
is right, as my servant Job hath." Job 42:7
Hence, for Muslims
to use these verses to disprove the deity of Christ is to incur the wrath of
God, siding with unbelievers.
Charge #5
In Mark 2:1-12, Jesus forgives a paralytic's sins
without having to die for that man. This affirms that Christ's death in place
of sinners was unnecessary and unbiblical. Furthermore, Christians often use
this text as proof that Jesus is God since God alone forgives sins. Yet, we
are told in John 20:22 that the disciples were given authority to forgive
sins. Would this make them God as well?
Response
Christ could pardon sinners based on His future work on the cross, since
Scripture indicates that Christ's sacrifice had already transpired in the
foreknowledge of God:
"And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship Him, whose names
are written in the Book of Life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of
the world." Revelation 13:8
"But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and
without spot; He indeed was foreordained before the foundation of the
world, but was revealed in these last times for you..." 1 Peter 1:19-20
NKJV
Based on this fact, God overlooked the sins of His
election, sparing them from eternal punishment due primarily to the imputed
righteousness of Christ, which was shortly forthcoming:
"Being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that
is in Christ Jesus, whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through
faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance,
God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, to demonstrate
at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the
justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus." Romans 3:24-26 NKJV
"Truly, these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands
all men everywhere to repent, because He has appointed a day on which He will
judge the world in righteousness by the Man (Jesus) whom He has
ordained. He has given assurance of this to all by raising Him from the dead."
Acts 17:30-31 NKJV
In response to John 20:22, the disciples
were given authority from Christ to forgive, whereas Christ could forgive
sinners by virtue of His divine nature. Christ is the source of all forgiveness
with the disciples being the instruments by which Christ pardoned all sinners
that came to repentance through the preaching of the Word. Hence, Christ can be
likened to the Sun, with the disciples likened to the moon, which reflects the
light that emanates from the true source of all life, the Lord Jesus Christ.
Charge #6
Jesus Christ in John 13:16 states that a "servant is
not greater than his lord; neither he who is sent is greater than he who sends
him." Since Christ has been sent by God, He cannot possibly be equal to
Him.
Response
The passage does not deny equality but negates the fact of one being
greater than his master or sender. No Christian believes that Jesus is
greater than God, but equal with Him in essence and nature.
Charge #7
1 Corinthians 11:3 teaches that the head of Christ is
God, making Jesus less than true deity.
Response
To understand Paul's meaning, we must read the entire verse:
"But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ,
and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God."
To say that Christ is not equal to God because God is His head
would also imply that women are inferior to men since the one is subject to the
other. However, the Bible clearly indicates that both men and women are equal in
worth and nature since both are created in the image of God and are of one
accord. (C.f. Genesis 1:26-28, 2:24; Galatians 3:28)
In fact, it is the woman who is called the mother of all the living. (C.f.
Genesis 3:20)
Hence, headship here implies that man is superior in position to women, not
in essence or value. Likewise, Christ is subject to the Father by virtue of His
position as a man, not by essence or nature. And due to the fact that Christ
will forever retain His human nature, being the God-man, He will continue to
remain subject to the Father for all eternity. (C.f. 1 Corinthians 15:28)
Charge #8
1 Corinthians 15:28 reaffirms that Christ is not God
since he is made subject to the Father for all eternity.
Response
The passage is not speaking of Jesus being inferior to the Father in regards
to his nature and essence, but is referring to his position. As we have clearly
indicated, Christ is made subject to God by virtue of the fact that he is the
God-man, and as man he remains in subjection to his Father's authority.
The fact that Paul is speaking of a positional subjection is clear by the
Greek phrase he uses, namely hypotagegetai. This phrase stems from the
word hypotasso; a word used elsewhere in relation to position or rank:
"Then he (Jesus) went down to Nazareth with them (Joseph and Mary)
and was obedient (hypotassomenos) to them. Luke 2:51 NIV
Christ was made subject to his parents. He was not made inferior to them in
anyway, since he was the Savior who had come to save his people from sin. (C.f.
Matthew 1:21)
"Everyone must submit (hypotassesthe) himself to the
governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has
established." Romans 13:1 NIV
Finally both Christians and wives are told to be in submission:
"Submit (hypotassomenoi) to one another out of reverence
for Christ. Wives submit (hypotassomenoi) to your husbands as to the
Lord." Ephesians 5:21-22 NIV
In light of these passages, the term "submit" or "subject" implies positional
subjection, as opposed to inferiority of essence. Hence, Jesus is lesser
positionally, not inferior to the Father in relation to essence and nature.
Charge #9
Luke 2:52 states that "Jesus increased in
wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man." Christ is shown as a
distinct person from God, making it impossible for him to be God. Furthermore,
Christ is said to have grown in wisdom and stature. Yet, God does not grow
since He is immutable.
Response
If this logic is true, then Christ cannot be human since He is shown to be
distinct from man. Secondly, while Christ grew in His humanity, as God He
remains the same:
"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, today, and forever." Hebrews
13:8
Charge #10
John 17:3 indicates that the Father alone is the only
true God:
"And this is life eternal; that they may know
Thee, the Only true God and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast
sent."
Response
The Lord is not denying His deity, but actually goes on to assert it in verse
5:
"And now Father, glorify Me with You in Your presence with the
glory I had with you before the world was."
Here we see
Jesus co-existing with the Father in heavenly glory from eternity. Far from
suggesting that the Father alone is the true God, for Jesus to exist alongside
the Father in eternal glory makes him truly God as well:
"I am the LORD, that is My name; and My glory I will not
give to another." Isaiah 42:8 NKJV
"For My own sake, for My own sake, I will do it; for how should
My name be profaned? And I will not give My glory to another."
Isaiah 48:11 NKJV
Secondly, we must bear in mind that the three
Persons of the Godhead glorify the other as the following verses demonstrate:
"...Father, the hour is come; glorify Thy Son, that Thy Son
also may glorify Thee." John 17:1
"He (the Spirit of Truth) shall glorify Me; for he shall
receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you." John 16:14
"Therefore, God also hath highly exalted Him, and given Him a name
which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of
things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; and that
every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the
Father." Philippians 2:9-11
It is in this fashion we see that
not only does Jesus acknowledge the Father's deity, but that the Father Himself
exalts Christ as God:
"But unto the Son He (God) saith, Thy throne O God, is
forever and ever: a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Thy kingdom.
Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even
Thy God, hath anointed Thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows."
Hebrews 1:8-9
The author affirms here that God, speaking through
the psalmist in Psalm 45:6-7 addresses the Son as the true God. To reiterate,
the Father is indeed the only true God without excluding the Son and the Holy
Spirit from being God, since Scripture testifies to the deity of all three.
In fact, the Apostle John himself, the very one who records Jesus' words to
the Father in John 17:3, addresses Christ as the true God:
"And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an
understanding, that we may know Him that is true, and we are in Him that is
true, even in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal
life." 1 John 5:20
The term for "this is", autos, is a
Greek pronoun which must refer to the nearest or last person just mentioned- in
this case, Jesus. (C.f. John 1:29-30, 1:40-41; 6:46,71; 2 John 9)
That Jesus is the one spoken of here is made even clearer by the fact that
earlier in his epistle, John specifically addresses Jesus as the eternal life:
"That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we
have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have
handled, of the Word of Life; (for the Life was manifested, and
we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life
which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;) 1 John 1:1-2
Finally, if the statement that the Father is the only true God
means that Jesus cannot be the true God as well, this logic would also prove
that the Father is not sovereign since the Bible says that only Jesus is
sovereign:
"They are godless men who change the grace of our God into a
license for immorality and deny Jesus Christ our only Sovereign and
Lord (monon despoten)." Jude 4
Charge #11
In Acts 2:22, the Apostle Peter declares that Jesus is
nothing more than a man sent from God:
"Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man
(anthropos) approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs,
which God did by Him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also
know."
Response
Peter does not say that Jesus was only a man, but bears witness to Christ's
true humanity and position as the servant of Yahweh whose coming had been
prophesied by Isaiah. (C.f. Isaiah 42:1-9, 49:1-7, 52:13-53:12)
When one reads further, one discovers that Peter goes on to acknowledge the
deity of Christ:
"But you denied the Holy One and the Just, and asked
for a murderer to be granted to you, and killed the Author
(archegos- Captain, Prince, Originator) of life whom God
raised from the dead, of which we are witnesses." Acts 3:14-15 NKJV
To Peter, Jesus was not only a man but also the source of life
itself.
In 2 Peter 1:2 and 1:11, Peter also writes:
"To those who have obtained like precious faith with us by the
righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ...for so an entrance
will be supplied to you abundantly into the everlasting kingdom of our Lord
and Savior Jesus Christ." NKJV
Hence, Peter is quite explicit
in his belief in the Lord's deity.
Charge #12
In Acts 2:36 Peter states, "Therefore let all the
house of Israel know that God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified,
both Lord and Christ." It is obvious here that Peter does not believe
that Jesus was always Lord but only made such after His post-resurrection
exaltation.
Response
The context of what Peter is saying deals with the resurrection of Christ
(vv. 22-35). The sense in which God "made" Christ Lord is in the fact that the
resurrection was a vindication from God to the truth of Christ's divine claims.
Hence, God affirmed Christ's messianic claims by raising Him from the dead, and
it is in this sense that Christ was "made" Lord.
Secondly, Peter elsewhere confirms that Christ has always been Lord as we
have already noted (see #10).
Finally, Luke, who records Peter's words in this passage, also records these
words made by the angel to the shepherds at the time of Christ's birth:
"For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour,
which is Christ the Lord." Luke 2:11
In fact, Christ was Lord even before His birth:
(Elizabeth): "And whence is this to me, that the mother of my
Lord should come to me? Luke 1:43
(Zecharias): "And thou child [John the Baptist], shalt be called the
prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to
prepare His ways." Luke 1:76
Scripture clearly indicates that John was sent to prepare the way for Jesus
Christ:
"And they came unto John, and said unto him, `Rabbi, he that was
with thee beyond the Jordan, to whom thou bearest witness, behold the
same baptizeth, and all men come to him.' John answered and said, `A man can
receive nothing except it be given him from heaven. Ye yourselves bear
witness, that I said, `I am not the Christ, but that I am sent before
him.''" John 3:26-28
Hence, Jesus is the Lord for whom John was to prepare the way. It becomes
clear that the unanimous testimony of the Bible is that Jesus Christ has always
been Lord even before His birth.
In Matthew 16:15-17 we read the confession that Jesus is the Christ:
"But what about you?" he [Jesus] asked. "Who do you say I am?"
Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God." Jesus
replied, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to
you by man, but by my Father in heaven."
This confession took place
long before the resurrection and affirms that Peter was aware that Jesus did not
become the Christ or Lord only after his exaltation.
Charge #13
Christians often presume that Scripture calls Jesus
God and therefore must be Deity, while they ignore the fact that both Moses
and the judges of Israel are called God also:
"...And you (Moses) shall be to him (Aaron) as God." Exodus 4:16
"And the LORD said unto Moses, `See, I have made thee God unto
Pharaoh..." Exodus 7:1
"God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the
gods... I have said, `Ye are gods; and all of you are sons of the
Most High.'
"But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes." Psalm
82:1, 6-7
No Christian assumes that these passages are to be
viewed literally, taking Moses or the judges to be actual gods; and yet, when
it comes to Christ Christians enforce a literal interpretation exposing their
inconsistent methodology in handling the Bible.
Response
A careful examination of the Hebrew text would easily resolve this erroneous
assumption. The term applied to Moses and the Israelite judges is elohim,
which is correctly translated as gods, having the plural ending "im". This term
is not a proper name for the God of Israel but a title used extensively
throughout Scripture to denote beings aside from Yahweh, as the following
examples demonstrate:
"Thou shalt have no other gods (elohim) before me." Exodus
20:3
"Then the Lords of the Philistines gathered them together to offer a great
sacrifice unto Dagon their god (elohim), and to rejoice: For they said,
`Our god hath delivered Samson our enemy into our hand.'" Judges 16:23
"For you have made him a little lower than God (lit. gods,
elohim)..." Psalm 8:5
"Confounded be all they that serve graven images, that boast themselves of
idols; worship him, all ye gods (elohim)." Psalm 97:7
The Jewish scribes who translated the Hebrew text into Greek
for the Alexandrian Jews, understood both of the above two Psalms as speaking of
angels and rendered the Greek as such:
"Let all of the angels (angelos) of God worship
him."
"You made him a little lower than the angels." (Septuagint reading)
Hence, even angelic beings are called elohim.
This affirms that the term itself based upon the diversity in its usage does
not necessarily mean that the true God is being spoken of. The term can refer to
either individuals or angelic beings that speak on God's behalf, or to false
gods whom others view as truly divine but are not. (C.f. Galatians 4:8)
However, Scripture accords certain names and titles that are used only of
God, several of which include:
Yahweh /Jehovah:
"And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the
name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them." Exodus
6:3
The Mighty God (El Gibbor):
"The remnant shall return, even the remnant of Jacob, unto the
Mighty God." Isaiah 10:21
The I AM:
"Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am
the first, I also am the last." Isaiah 48:12
And yet both
prophetic Scripture and the Lord Jesus himself ascribe all these titles to
Christ. As we quote the Hebrew text, we will also give the rabbinical
interpretation to them to avoid the accusation that these passages do not refer
to Christ (Messiah):
"For unto us a child is born, unto us a Son is given; and the
government shall be upon his shoulders, and his name shall be called
Wonderful, Counselor, The Mighty God, The Father of Eternity (abi ad),
The Prince of Peace." Isaiah 9:6
"For to us a Son is born, to us a Son is given; and His name is called from
of old, Wonderful, Counselor, Eloha (God, Arabic- Allah), The
Mighty, Abiding to Eternity, THE MESSIAH, because peace shall be
multiplied on us in His days." Targum Jonathan
"Behold the days come, saith the LORD that I will raise unto David a
righteous Branch... And this is his name whereby he will be
called: JEHOVAH (YHWH) OUR Righteousness." Jeremiah 23:5-6
"What is the name of the KING MESSIAH? R. Abba son of Kohana said,
`JEHOVAH', for it is written: This is HIS name whereby HE shall be
called, JEHOVAH OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS." Midrash On Ezekiel 48:35; Targum
Jonathan
"Jesus therefore, knowing all things that should come upon him, went forth,
and said unto them, `Whom seek ye?' They answered him, `Jesus of Nazareth.'
Jesus said unto them, `I AM he'... As soon as he said unto them, `I AM
he', they went backward, and fell to the ground." John 18:4-6
"And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his
right hand upon me, saying unto me, `Fear not; I am the first and the
last. I am he that liveth, and was DEAD, and behold, I am alive
forevermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death." Revelation 1:17-18
The preceding passages should clearly demonstrate that the Lord
Jesus is called God, not in the sense that he is God's spokesperson much like
Moses, but because he is truly God by nature. Therefore, Christians are not
misinterpreting the Bible, but are correctly dividing the word of truth in their
worship of Jesus as the True God and Savior of all men.
Charge #14
The official Christian understanding of the Trinity is
that the three Persons of the Godhead are inseparable, forming one indivisible
unity. Yet, two passages seem to suggest that the Father and Son were anything
but inseparable:
"And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice,
saying, `Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?', that is, `My God, my God, why have
You forsaken Me?'" Matthew 27:46
"And when Jesus had cried out with a loud voice, He said, `Father, into
Your hands I commit My Spirit.' Having said this, He breathed His last."
Luke 23:46
It is apparent that the Father and Son were not inseparable or one in
unity.
Response
To use the texts cited above to disprove the indivisible unity of the three
Persons of the Godhead is a gross misunderstanding of what the holy Bible means
by separation. Separation does not mean being cast off from God's presence since
it is impossible for anyone, let alone Christ, to be totally separated from God
in that sense. Since God is present everywhere, filling all things infinitely,
it is impossible for separation from God to occur. The Psalmist in Psalm
139:7-12 beautifully points this out:
"Where can I go from Your Spirit? Or where can I flee from Your
presence? If I ascend into heaven, You are there; if I make my
bed in Sheol, behold You are there. If I take the wings of the morning,
and dwell in the uttermost parts of the sea, even there Your right hand
shall lead me.
If I say, `Surely the darkness shall fall on me,' even the night shall be
light about me; Indeed the darkness shall not hide from You. But the night
shines as the day; the darkness and the light are both alike to
You."
Since the Bible affirms the impossibility of being
separated from the presence of God, what does it mean then to be God-forsaken?
Simply put, to be forsaken by God is to experience broken fellowship, which
means the loss of the intimate experience of God caused by sin:
"But your iniquities have separated you from your God; And your
sins have hidden His face from you, so that He will not hear." Isaiah
59:2
"If I regard iniquity in my heart, the Lord will not hear." Psalm
66:18
"Then they will cry to the LORD, but He will not hear them; He will
even hide His face from them at that time, because they have been evil in
their deeds." Micah 3:4
Obviously, God is able to hear the
prayers of the wicked but refuses to respond to their requests due to their sin.
Likewise, although God is present everywhere, He refuses to have intimate
communion with those who persist in sin. It is in this manner that one is
forsaken by God.
Since Christ became our sin-bearer, one of the consequences of taking on the
sins of the world was to experience broken fellowship from the Father. Hence,
Christ was not separated from the Father, but forsaken to face judgment on our
behalf.
After paying the price for sin, Christ was restored to fellowship with the
Father. This is the meaning of Jesus' statement in Luke 23:46, not that He was
separated from the Godhead, only to be reunited, but that He and the Father
resumed the intimate communion they have always shared from eternity, which had
temporarily been broken.
Charge #15
According to James 1:13, God cannot be tempted by
evil. Christ was tempted (Matthew 4:1), therefore he cannot be God.
Response
James whole point is not that no one can try to tempt God, since many
have (Deut. 6:16; Mal. 3:15; Mt. 4:7; Acts 15:10), but that there is nothing
within the nature of God that would lead him to act upon these attempts. God
cannot fall victim to temptations that are done to lure him into sinning. The
same holds true for Christ. Although he was tempted, he could not sin. (Heb.
4:15), since there is nothing in Christ's divine nature that would attract him
to evil.
Pauline Christology
There are certain Muslim apologists, most notably Hamza Abdul Malek of the
Islamic Research and Propagation Center located in Jamaica, New York, who claim
that Paul's Christology falls far short of asserting the full deity of Jesus
Christ. Instead, one finds Paul adhering more to an adoptionist and
subordinationist view of Christ: that Christ became God's Son after His
resurrection. It is also believed that Paul knows nothing of either Christ's
pre-existence or his virgin birth.
Biblical passages are cited to prove these assertions. We will cite the
passages in question and give our responses to them:
#1:
In Romans 1:3-4 Paul writes,
"Concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the
seed (spermatose) of David according to the flesh; and
declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of
holiness by the resurrection from the dead."
The Greek
term for seed is spermatose, i.e. sperm. This means that Paul believes
Christ was conceived naturally, denying the virgin birth. Secondly, Paul
states that Christ was declared to be God's son after the resurrection,
which is a denial of Christ's eternal sonship.
Response
To assume that spermatose implies natural biological conception is an
unscholarly exegesis of the biblical usage of the term. The term stems from the
Greek sperma and is used throughout the New Testament in different ways.
In Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible #4690 of the Greek Dictionary,
the word is listed with these various meanings:
Something sown; offspring; a remnant; issue; seed.
These various usages are confirmed within the New Testament itself:
"Now he that ministereth seed (sperma) to the sower
both minister bread for your food, and multiply your seed (sporon)
sown, and increase the fruits of your righteousness." 2 Cor. 9:10
Paul uses two different Greek words for seed interchangeably. The
latter word for seed is also used by the Apostle Peter:
"Being born again not of corruptible seed (sporas), but of
incorruptible, by the Word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever."
1 Peter 1:23
Obviously, Peter does not believe that God's Word
actually planted living sperm within believers. This shows the absurdity of the
logic applied by those Muslims who embrace the literal usage of the term.
"Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed
(sperma) remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God."
1 John 3:9
Hence, Paul's usage of sperma is not a denial of the Lord's virgin
birth, but confirmation of Christ's right to the Davidic throne and Messianic
promises, since Messiah was to be a descendent of David; as Christ certainly was
(c.f. Mt. 22:41-46; Revelation 22:16)
Secondly, one of Paul's traveling companions was a physician named Luke (c.f.
Colossians 4:14; 2 Timothy 4:11), who authored the two New Testament books Luke
and Acts. In his gospel account, Luke explicitly affirms Jesus' virginal
conception and birth (c.f. Luke 1:26-35). This is an indirect confirmation that
Paul did indeed hold to Jesus' supernatural birth since it is extremely unlikely
that his own companion would hold to a belief that he himself did not.
In fact, Paul specificilly alludes to Luke's Gospel in 1 Timothy 5:18 where
he quotes Deuteronomy 25:4 and Luke 10:7. The fact that Paul quotes Luke with
approval is evidence that he also believed in Jesus' virgin birth.
Finally, Paul does not deny the fact that Christ has always been God's Son or
that he existed prior to His human birth since he alludes to Christ's
preexistence in several passages, one of which is 1 Corinthians 10:1-4 :
For I do not want you to be ignorant of the fact, brothers, that
our forefathers were all under the cloud and that they all passed through the
sea. They were all baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea. They all
ate the same spiritual food and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank
from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ.
Hence, Paul is indicating that the resurrection was the greatest evidence God
has given to confirm Jesus' claims. The resurrection established beyond any
reasonable doubt the truth of what has always been: namely, that Jesus is the
divine, unique Son of God. This is specifically why Paul uses "declared to be",
as opposed to saying "became" God's Son.
#2: In 1 Corinthians 8:6 Paul affirms that there is only one God,
the Father. Paul clearly believes that Jesus is not God.
Response
The full text reads,
"Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all
things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ,
through whom all things came and through whom we live." NIV
If indeed Paul believes only the Father is God, then that also
means that only Christ is Lord. Yet, Paul uses both titles interchangeably when
speaking of the Father and Son:
"...God, the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings and Lord
of lords." 1 Timothy 6:15 NIV
"While we wait for the blessed hope- the glorious appearing of our great
God and Savior, Jesus Christ." Titus 2:13 NIV
We see that
Paul's intention is not to deny Christ's deity but is contrasting the many false
"gods" and "lords" with the only true God and Lord of all Christians, the Father
and the Son. (C.f. 1 Corinthians 8:5) Further, Paul in this very passage
affirms that Christ was the agent by which the Father created all things, since
all things are from God through Christ. Even the life we receive from the Father
comes only through Christ. Paul could not have been any clearer in asserting
Christ's equality with the Father in essence and nature.
Finally, the fact that for Paul there is only one Lord, Jesus, affirms that
Christ is Yahweh God as the following scriptures prove:
"And Jesus answered him, the first of all the commandments is,
Hear O Israel The Lord our God is one Lord." Mark 12:29
Continuing further in the same chapter, Jesus states,
"How is it that the teachers of the law say that the Christ is the
son of David? David himself, speaking by the Holy Spirit, declared: `The
Lord said to my Lord: "Sit at my right hand until I put your
enemies under your feet."' David himself calls him `Lord.' How then can
he be his son?" Mark
12:35-37
If there is only one Lord who is God, and yet Jesus affirms that he being
Christ is also Lord, logically this makes him God.
"But, let him who boasts boast in the Lord. For it is not
the one who commends himself who is approved but the one whom the Lord
commends." 2 Cor. 10:17-18
Keeping in mind that Paul has just indicated earlier to the Corinthians that
there is only one Lord, Jesus, presumes the fact that the Lord spoken of in this
passage can be none other than Christ.
This solidifies the point that in Paul's mind Jesus and Yahweh are one,
especially in light of Jeremiah 9:24:
"But let him who boasts boast about this: that he
understands and knows me, that I am the LORD (YHVH), who expresses
kindness, justice and righteousness on earth, for in these I delight, declares
the LORD."
Hence, when 1 Corinthians 8:6 is read in context with the rest of Scripture,
it affirms, rather than denies Jesus' perfect Deity.
#3: Paul states that
"for this reason I bow my knees to the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ."
(Ephesians 3:14 NKJV) Paul affirms that we should worship the Father
alone, as he clearly did.
Response
First, the word `alone' does not appear in the text. Secondly, Paul indicates
that all will one day bow to Jesus Christ as Lord, honoring Him as they do the
Father:
"That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those
in heaven and of those on earth, and of those underneath the earth, and that
every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the
Father." Philippians 2:10-11 NKJV
#4: In Colossians 1:15, Christ is called "the firstborn over
all creation." This clearly teaches that Jesus was created.
Response
This interpretation is a gross misinterpretation of the whole context
for the following reasons:
First, the Greek term for firstborn, prototokos, does not imply
creation but preeminence. Had Paul intended to teach that Christ was created, he
could have used protoktistos, meaning first-created. In fact, the very
term "creation" used in this verse stems from the Greek ktisis, the same
as in protoktistos.
Secondly, within the Bible itself the term `firstborn' implies preeminence
and first rank as these Old Testament examples demonstrate: In Exodus 4:22, God
calls Israel His "firstborn". This could not possibly refer to Israel being the
first people God created, but rather to their preeminence and election over all
the other nations.
In Job 18:13 we are told:
"It devours patches of his skin; The firstborn of death
devours his limbs." NKJV
Firstborn is used to refer to the
deadliest of diseases, indicating the fact that the term is meant to imply
preeminence and position, not necessarily birth or generation per se.
Ephraim is called God's firstborn in Jeremiah 31:9:
"...because I am Israel's Father, and Ephraim is my firstborn
son."
Yet, Ephraim was anything but the firstborn son:
"But Israel reached out his right hand and put it on Ephraim's
head, though he was the younger, and crossing his arms, he put his left
hand on Manasseh's head, even though Manasseh was the firstborn."
Genesis 48:14
David in Psalm 89:27 is also called God's "firstborn" due to the fact that
God had made him "the highest of the kings of the earth." We know that Saul
preceded David as king; and David was the youngest son, so the title cannot
possibly refer to creation or time, but to position.
It should be pointed out that the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint,
translates the Hebrew term for "firstborn" in these passages as
prototokos, the same as in Colossians.
Likewise, Christ is the firstborn since He is God the Creator and the
firstfruits of the resurrection:
"For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and
that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or
principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for
Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all
things consist." Colossians 1:16-17 NKJV
These verses clearly
destroy any attempts to make Christ a creature since He created all things for
Himself and is eternal since He existed before the creation of time.
"And He is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning,
the firstborn from among the dead, that in all things He may have the
preeminence." Colossians 1:18 NKJV
"For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of
His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren." Romans 8:29 NKJV
Due to the fact that Christ is the first to be resurrected and
glorified, He holds preeminence over all the others that are to be resurrected
at His return. This again demonstrates that `firstborn' refers to rank and
position, not creation.
#5: Jesus is viewed as a mediator between God and man:
"For there is One God and one Mediator between God and
man, the Man Christ Jesus."
Paul clearly teaches that Christ is a man and not God.
Response
Again if this logic were true, Jesus cannot be man since He is the mediator
of men. But just as Paul affirms Christ's true humanity here, he also affirms
Christ's true deity:
"Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, who,
being in the form of God, did not consider equality with God to be
something to grasp onto, but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of
a bond-servant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in
appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to death, even
the death of the cross." Philippians 2:5-8
Jesus is true God who
became true man while retaining His full deity:
"For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Deity in bodily
form." Colossians 2:9
The Greek term for "dwell," katoikei, is in the present tense and
indicates a continuation of action or existence, i.e., that the fullness of
Deity continues to dwell bodily in Christ throughout eternity.
Hence, the last thing on Paul's mind is the denial of Jesus' divinity. The
passage in 1 Timothy affirms that Jesus, being the only perfect man, can
stand on our behalf before the Father; this is something no man can do. And as
God, He comes down to our fallen level that we may behold God's glory face to
face in human form, since no one can see his Creator in His unveiled glory and
live.
Hence, in conclusion, we must simply say that there are no good arguments
that deny the fundamental truth of the biblical exhortation that "God was in
Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting men's trespasses against
them." 2 Corinthians 5:19
We pray that the Lord of glory, the Great God and Savior Jesus Christ, will
bless the hearts of all who read this study. It is to, for, and by Him that we
devote all our studies in order that His name may be exalted in all the earth.
AMEN
