Sam Shamoun
This study is a sequel to our previous critique of Dr. Jamal Badwi's
pamphlet, Jesus Christ in the Qur'an and the Bible. We will examine some
of the other areas of criticism Badawi presents against the N.T. witness to the
deity of Christ, offering a point by point refutation.
Dr. Badawi:
9. CALLED SAVIOR: So was Jeho'ahaz (II Kings 13:5). Used in plural (Obad.
Verse 21 and Nehem. 9:27).
Response:
Badawi's assumption is since other prophets and messengers were also called
saviors, the title as applied to Jesus does not imply divinity. What Badawi
fails to realize is that the term by itself does not imply divinity, but it is
the manner in which it is used which indicates whether the phrase contains any
divine overtones.
In relation to the O.T. passages that Badawi cites, the term implies
deliverance from oppression and captivity:
"In the twenty-third year of King Joash son of Azariah of Judah, Jehoahaz son
of Jehu began to reign seventeen years. He did what was evil in the sight of the
LORD, and followed the sins of Jeroboam son of Nebat, which he caused Israel to
sin; he did not depart from them. The anger of the LORD was kindled against
Israel, so that he gave them repeatedly into the hand of King Hazael of Aram,
then into the hand of Ben-hadad son of Hazael. But Jehoahaz entreated the
LORD, and the LORD heeded him; for he saw the oppression of Israel, how the
king of Aram oppressed them. Therefore the LORD gave them a
savior, so that they escaped from the hand of the Arameans; and
the people of Israel lived in their homes as formerly." 2 Kings 13:1-5
"Nevertheless they were disobedient and rebelled against you and cast your
law behind their backs and killed your prophets, who had warned them in order to
turn back to you, and they committed great blasphemies. Therefore you gave
them into the hands of their enemies, who made them suffer. Then in the time of
their suffering they cried out to you and you heard them from heaven, and
according to your great mercies you gave them saviors who saved them from the
hands of their enemies." Nehemiah 9:26-27
Finally, the book of Obadiah deals with God's judgement upon Edom for their
oppression of Israel, and it is in this context that saviors were given.
Yet Jesus is a different kind of Savior, one who not only saves God's people
from oppression but from the consequence of sin which is eternal separation from
God in hell:
"She will bear a son, and you are to name him Jesus for he will save his
people from their sins." Matthew 1:21
"The next day he (John the Baptist) saw Jesus coming toward him and declared,
`Here is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!" John
1:29
"They said to the woman, `It is no longer because of what you said that we
believe, for we have heard for ourselves, and we know that this is truly
the Savior of the world." John 4:42
"I do not judge anyone who hears my words and does not keep them, for I came
not to judge the world, but to save the world." John
12:47
No other prophet ever claimed to be the savior of the world or a savior from
sin. This honor belongs to Jesus Christ alone.
13. SAID THAT ALL AUTHORITY WAS GIVEN TO HIM: He who gave authority is
Greater (i.e. His God).
Response:
Badawi presumes that since Jesus was given all authority in heaven and earth
he could not possibly be God. He forgets to inform his readers that the Holy
Bible teaches that Jesus willingly subjected himself while on earth as a
servant, setting aside his authority in order to fulfill the plan of
salvation:
"Let the same mind be in you that was in Christ Jesus, who though he
was (Greek- huperchon) in the form of God, did not regard
equality with God as something to be exploited, but emptied himself, taking
the form of a slave, being born in human likeness. And being found in human
form, he humbled himself and became obedient to the point of death-even
death on the cross." Phillipians 2:5-8
This passage clearly teaches that Jesus of his own accord allowed himself to
become man and a servant of God. The Greek term huperchon is a present
participle, implying continuous action or existence. Hence, Jesus continued to
exist in the form of God even while on earth. The only difference being that his
divine form was veiled by the addition of his human nature.
By humbling himself, Christ emptied himself of his divine authority and
visible glory, but not of his divine attributes. The authority that Christ
received was not something that had not been his prior to his coming to the
earth as a servant. Rather, it was something that he regained at his exaltation
and resurrection. Jesus personally affirms the fact that what he was receiving
was something that had already been his prior to the Incarnation:
"So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had
in your own presence before the world existed." John 17:5
In fact, the Bible affirms that in the same way the Father gave to the Son
authority to rule over all creation, the Son shall also give all authority to
the Father at the consummation of the age:
"who (Jesus) has gone into heaven and is at the right hand of God, with
angels, authorities (exousion), and powers (dunameon) made
subject to him." 1 Peter 3:22
Compare this with the following citation:
"Then comes the end, when he (Christ) hands over the kingdom to God
the Father, after he has destroyed every ruler and every authority (exousian)
and power(dunamin)." 1 Corinthians 15:24
Badawi certainly would not say that just because Jesus gives the kingdom
to the Father that this then implies that the Father is not God, or that Jesus
is a greater God than the Father. Yet, this is precisely what we would logically
conclude if Badawi's reasoning is correct.
14. WAS CALLED "MY LORD AND MY GOD" (Jn. 20:28): Could have been an
expression of excitement or " you are God - like " Distinction between " Lord "
and "God" is made in I Cor. 8:6.
Response:
The best argument Badawi brings against the clear reference to Jesus as Lord
and God in John 20:28 is to suggest that Thomas' statement was an exclamation of
surprise, much like someone today yelling out "O My God!" at something
surprising or shocking. The only problem with this argument is that it reads
back into history a linguistic feature of today, which is a chronological
fallacy.
A Jew would never use God's name in vain, especially in the manner Badawi
suggests since they were clearly forbidden from using the Lord's name in any
blasphemous way. (cf. Exodus 20:7) Furthermore, if Thomas had in fact used God's
name in this manner Jesus would have rebuked him, yet he did not do so.
Badawi also assumes that Thomas was distinguishing between Jesus as his Lord,
from the Father who he addressed as God. Hence, Thomas was actually addressing
two distinct persons in John 20:28. Badawi's reasoning crumbles upon a closer
examination of the biblical evidence. First, the verse clearly states that
Thomas was addressing Jesus directly: "Thomas
answered him, `My Lord
and My God!"
Secondly, the phrase "My Lord and My God" (Greek- ho kyrios mou kai ho
theos mou), and its various forms, is used elsewhere in relation to one
person, not two:
"Wake up! Bestir yourself for my defense, for my cause, my God and my
Lord! (ho theos mou kai ho kyrios mou)" Psalms 35:23 (As translated in the
Greek Septuagint Version [LXX])
"You are worthy, our Lord and God (ho kyrios kai ho theos hemon), to
receive glory and honor and power, for you created all things, and by your will
they existed and were created." Revelation 4:11
The fact that the phrase is used to refer to one person as opposed to two,
along with the fact that Christ blesses Thomas' declaration affirms that John
20:28 is clearly addressing Christ as Lord and God. For a Jew to call anyone his
Lord and God would be blasphemy because to the Jew only Jehovah could ever be
addressed in such a manner.
15. JEWS TRIED TO STONE HIM FOR BLASPHEMY (Jn. 10:29-33): Jews were to indict
him " by hook or by crook ", regardless of what he said. They may have
considered him a false " Messiah ". Jesus' answer was revealing (Jn. 10:34). In
Ps. 82:6, humans are called gods, allegorically, Moses was sent as " God " to
the Pharoah (Exod. 7:1).
Response:
Even though it might be true that the unbelieving Jews were seeking to find a
reason to execute Jesus and twist his words, this certainly was not the case
with everyone. The disciples were also Jews and had no intention of catching
Jesus in a lie or for blasphemy.
Furthermore, Jesus' citation of John 10:34 where Israelite judges are
addressed as "gods" in a figurative sense was not a denial of his divinity. In
order to understand Jesus' point it is essential to quote Psalms 82:6 and 7:
"I say, `Your are gods, children of the Most High, all of you; nevertheless,
you shall die like mortals, and fall like any prince."
Although these judges are referred to as "gods" and "sons of the Most High"
in a figurative sense, they are mere mortals who will die like all men. Yet
Jesus not only represents God as did these judges, but is actually able to do
what they could not, namely give eternal life:
"I GIVE THEM ETERNAL LIFE, AND THEY SHALL NEVER PERISH. NO ONE WILL SNATCH
THEM OUT OF MY HAND. What My Father has given me is greater than all
else, AND NO ONE CAN SNATCH IT OUT OF THE FATHER'S HAND. THE FATHER AND I ARE
ONE." John 10:28-30
Jesus and the Father are one in the sense that the Son is able to preserve
believers from perishing and gives them eternal life, something which God alone
can do. Hence, oneness does not simply imply one in purpose but one in all
things, i.e. nature and power.
No Israelite judge could ever claim to have the power to preserve lives from
perishing and the ability to give eternal life, since these are claims which
only God can make:
"See now that I, even I, am he; there is no god beside me. I kill and make
alive; I wound and heal; and no one can deliver from my hand."
Deuteronomy 32:39
Jesus' usage of Psalms 82:6 was to imply that what the Scriptures call humans
allegorically, he was in actuality since he does what only God can do. This
point is brought out more clearly in the verses that follow immediately after
John 10:34:
"`If those to whom the word of God came were called "gods" - and the
scripture cannot be annulled - can you say that the one whom the Father has
sanctified and sent into the world is blaspheming because I said,
"I am God's Son"? If I am not doing the works of my Father (i.e. giving
eternal life, raising the dead etc.), then do not believe me. But if I do them,
even though you do not believe me, believe the works, so that you may know and
understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.' Then they tried
to arrest him again, but he escaped from their hands." John
10:35-39
If anything, Jesus' response served to reinforce to the Jews that Jesus
"though, only a human being," was making himself "God." (cf. John 10:33)
Amazingly, nowhere does one find Jesus denying the charge by simply coming out
and saying that he was not God. Had he not been God he was obligated to do so,
yet instead he only reinforces the Jewish accusation.
SECOND RESPONSE:
Jesus always expressed his subordination to his God and
Creator.
(Note- Are servants essentially inferior because they are subordinate to
their masters? Is the vice-president inferior because the president holds a
higher office? Something to ponder on)
Examples:
1. DID NOTHING ON HIS OWN AUTHORITY (Jn. 5:30, 14:31, Matt. 20:23).
2. SPOKE NOT ON HIS OWN AUTHORITY (Jn. 14:10, 8:28-29).
Response:
It is here where Badawi exposes his lack of credibility to seriously critique
the Holy Bible. Had Badawi done any type of in-depth scholarly research he would
have realized that the belief in the deity of Christ does not require the fact
that Jesus acts on his own authority. Instead, the biblical teaching is that the
three Persons of the Godhead do not act independently or on their own authority.
Rather, the three Persons work in perfect harmony and unity, since they are one
in all things. For them to work independently would imply that they were three
separate beings as opposed to three distinct Persons inseparably united in one
Being. Hence, these references serve to reinforce, rather than deny, the
biblical witness to the tri-unity of God.
In fact, this is precisely the whole point of Jesus' discourse in John
5:19-23:
"Jesus said to them, `Very truly, I tell you, the Son can do nothing on his
own, but only what he sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does,
THE SON DOES LIKEWISE. The Father loves the Son and shows him all that he
himself is doing; and he will show him greater works than these, so that you
will be astonished. Indeed, just as the Father raises the dead and gives them
life, SO ALSO THE SON GIVES LIFE TO WHOMEVER HE WISHES. The Father judges no one
but has given all judgment to the Son, SO THAT ALL MAY HONOR THE SON JUST
AS THEY HONOR THE FATHER. Anyone who does not honor the Son does not honor
the Father who sent him."
Jesus does nothing on his own, but everything that his Father does he can do.
Much like his Father, Jesus is able to give eternal life, raise the dead and
judge all men. In order for Jesus to be able to do all the works that his Father
can do, he must be God since the Father does things that only God can do. This
is precisely what Trinitarians believe, that Jesus works in perfect unity with
the Father and the Holy Spirit since all three are equally God in nature, having
the same infinite power to accomplish all that they purpose to do. (cf. John
16:13)
3. SAID THAT THE FATHER IS GREATER THAN HIM (Jn. 14:28).
Response:
Again, for one to be greater in position does not necessarily imply
inferiority of essence since this would mean that the vice-president is inferior
as a man to the president since the latter is greater than him. This would also
mean that any one holding a greater office is essentially superior and hence
bosses are better than their employees, husbands are better than their wives
etc. The Father was greater by virtue of his exalted position since Jesus was on
earth as a lowly and humble servant. The Father was greater in position, not in
essence.
This is in fact the point Jesus was making in John 14:28:
"You heard me say to you, `I am going away, and I am coming to you.' If you
loved me, you would rejoice that I am going to the Father, because the Father
is greater than I."
Why would Jesus tell his disciples to rejoice in the fact that he was going
back to heaven? Very simply because as long as Jesus remained on earth the
Father would hold a higher position. Now in heaven Jesus sits at God's right
hand , implying equality between them, and is given the name above all names in
order that all may give him the same honor that they give to the Father. (cf.
Mark 14:61-62; Phil. 2:9-11; Rev. 5:13-14)
(Note- God is Spirit [cf. John 4:24] and does not literally have a right
hand. Rather, right hand implies the most intimate position one can be at and
affirms equality. For Jesus to sit on God's right hand implies that he is equal
with God and holds the most intimate position anyone can hold with the Father
[cf. John 1:18, 17:24])
4. WAS TEMPTED (Matt. 4:1-11): But God can not be tempted (James
1:13).
Response:
To say that God was tempted and for God to be inclined to act upon that
temptation are two different things. James 1:13 is not denying the possibility
of anyone trying to tempt God, but rather that there is nothing in the nature of
God that would move him to act upon it. The Holy Bible clearly indicates that
many tried to tempt God. (cf. Exodus 17:2, 7; Hebrews 3:8-9) In similar fashion,
Jesus was tempted yet he was without sin since he was the God-man. (cf. Heb.
4:15; 7:26)
5. HE DENIED KNOWLEDGE OF THE UNSEEN (Mk. 13:32, Matt. 24:36).
6. WAS SUBJECT TO CHANGE (Lk. 2:21, 52): But God is Immutable.
Response:
Badawi's argument presupposes that Christians believe that Jesus was only
God. Instead the Holy Bible teaches that Jesus was the God-man, and when he
became man he had both a divine consciousness- will alongside a human one.
Therefore, Jesus in his human consciousness grew in wisdom and knowledge and did
not know all things. Yet in his divine consciousness he was immutable and was
omniscient:
"Now we know that you know all things and do not need to have anyone to
question you; by this we believe that you are from God." John 16:3
The only being who needs no one to question or teach him is God:
"O the depth of the riches and the wisdom and the knowledge of God! How
unsearchable are his judgments and how inscrutable his ways! For who has
known the mind of the Lord or who has been his counselor?' " Romans
11:33-34
Interestingly, Jesus claims to have the same incomprehensible knowledge of
the Father as the Father has of Christ:
"All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son
except the Father and no one knows the Father except the Son and to whom the
Son chooses to reveal him." Mat. 11:27
"He said to him the third time, `Simon son of John, do you love me? Peter
felt hurt because he said to him the third time, `Do you love me?' And he said
to him, `Lord, you know everything; you know that I love you.'" John
21:17
"Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today and forever." Heb. 13:8
"And I (Jesus) will strike her children dead. And all the churches will
know that I am the one who searches minds and hearts, and will give to each
of you as your works deserve." Rev. 2:23 (cf. Jeremiah 17:10)
Hence, Jesus was both omniscient in relation to his divine nature, and
ignorant of things in regards to his humanity.
7. DID NOT ACCEPT TO BE CALLED GOOD AND DEFERED TO GOD (Mk. 10:18).
Response:
Badawi reads too much into the text since Jesus never said he was not good,
but questioned the man why he was calling Jesus good. Christ was trying to get
the man to realize that to say Jesus was good meant he was God since only God is
good. If the man really believed this he should be willing to give everything up
for Christ, even his riches, following him wholeheartedly as he would God. When
confronted with the reality of having to give up everything for Christ, the man
turned away showing that he really did not believe at all what his words were
implying. (cf. Mark 10:17- 22)
Jesus elsewhere affirms that he is absolutely good. How good? Good enough to
be called Shepherd, an O.T. epithet of Yahweh God:
"I am the GOOD SHEPHERD. The good shepherd lays down his life for the
sheep… I am the GOOD SHEPHERD…" John 10:11, 14 (cf. Psalm 23:1,
80:1)
8. PRAYED TO GOD (Mk. 14:32, Lk. 5:16).
Response:
Jesus prayed to God since he became man, and as man he did what all godly men
are commanded to do. Jesus was also example for us to follow, and his prayers
served a two-fold purpose; namely to keep in constant fellowship with the Father
and to teach us how we should pray. (cf. 1 Peter 2:21)
9. REFERRED TO HIMSELF AS A PROPHET (Lk. 13:33-34). Others also called him a
prophet. (Lk. 7:16, 24:19, Jn. 6:14, Heb. 3:1). Referred to as a servant of God
(Acts 3:13, 4:27, 30, Matt. 12:18).
Response:
Badawi's point? Who has ever denied that Jesus is a Prophet like Moses (cf.
Deut. 18:15-20- John 5:45-46, 6:14), a Priest like Melchizedek (cf. Psalm 110:4-
Heb. 7:1-28), and a King like David (cf. Isaiah 9:7- Luke 1:32-33)? He was all
this and much more.
10. MADE A DISTINCTION BETWEEN HIMSELF AND THE FATHER (Matt.
23:8-10).
Response:
Precisely, which Trinitarian said otherwise? The Father and the Son are not
one in person, but one in nature; not the same person, but the same in essence.
11. Referred to himself frequently as SON OF MAN (eg. Matt. 8:20). In the
book of Acts (2:22), he is described as "a man approved of God". While he is
called Son of God nearly 68 times, not once was he called GOD THE SON. The
difference between the Two expressions is like the difference between the
Prophet Jesus of history and the CHRIST created in the image of the Church.
Response:
Badawi presumes that the title Son of Man is a title that carries no divine
connotations. Yet, Jesus as the Son of Man is the Lord of the Sabbath (Mat.
12:8), forgives sins (Mark 2:1-12), judges all flesh (Mat. 25:31-46; John 5:27),
sits at God's right hand (Mark 14:62), and reigns forever (Daniel 7:13-14).
Badawi erroneously assumes that the title Son of God does not carry the same
weight as saying God the Son. Yet, it is the Son who is the image of the
invisible God, the exact representation of God's nature and glory, creator of
all things, the one who upholds and sustains the entire creation. (cf.
Colossians 1:13-17; Heb. 1:1-3).
Finally, scripture calls Jesus both the Son of God as well as God. For
example he is "God with us" (Mat. 1:23), "The Word who is God "(John 1:1),
Thomas' Lord and God (John 20:28), "the Great God and Savior of us" (Titus
2:13), "our God and Savior" (2 Peter 1:1), "the True God and eternal life" (1
John 5:20), and "the Lord God of the spirit of the prophets that sent his angel
to testify to his servants" (Rev. 22:6, 16). When we tie in all these references
together, we arrive at the fact that Jesus is indeed God the Son, since he is
the Son who is distinct from God the Father and the Holy Spirit, while at the
same time being fully God by nature.
Continue with Part III
AMEN
Further articles by Sam
Shamoun
