Your Letters
Saturday, March 15, 2008 9:22:37 PM
Message: Hello!
I was wondering what you make of Paul's words in Ephesians "abolishing in his
flesh the enmity, the law of commandments in ordinances".
Is it not the case that the word for "abolishing" here is the same as that in a
earlier letter of his where he asks "do we then nullify the law through faith".
The word for nullify and cancel are the same.
Paul seems to state that a further revelation was given to him as recorded in
Ephesians 3 and which is especially related to the Gentiles. This cannot have
been in operation during the Acts for before Agrippa he claims that he has
preached nothing other than what Moses and the prophets said. This is in
conflict with Eph 3:1-9 and Col 1:25, 26.
Therefore, the torah is no longer in operation for it has now been abolished.
Any references in the gospels or the Acts period which indicate that the torah
is operative are irrelevant as they were only valid prior to the stewardship of
the mystery for us gentiles.
yours sincerely, stephen
Reply from the Rabbi
Unfortunately these type of misguided conclusions are made by gentiles all the time but you forget that Paul is not the authority and not even a pillar of the faith. Where are at least two prophetic witnesses saying Torah is abolished. Was it Jim and jerry and if not then who was it? Sorry my friend this is not how we interpret scripture or have you forgotten YHWH does not change. That means His commandments as well or did you think change means abolished. This type of education is perhaps only prevalent in British Schools but not where I come from. The "law of commandments" is a reference to Rabbinic man made laws that were taught to people to reach or work up their own salvation which was never commanded in Scriptures.
Have you ever considered what enmity Paul is referring to? You won't even think in your dreams what it is I guarantee it. The enmity was the fighting between the two houses of Israel that had continued for years on the way of salvation that caused the two kingdoms of co-exist as separate countries with a king in each. The enmity was the wall that the Jewish people had built that was unlawful in the Temple and I could go on but my point is made. The term "commandments contained in ordinances" is the reference to the 100s of human rabbinic dogmas that existed that separated YHWH's people and it was the Messiah who came to unite and remove these dogmas not His own delivered Torah by His own loving hands.
Paul in Ephesians is referring to man made laws, human govt not YHWH's set-apart laws. I am not surprised when gentiles make such foolish conclusions because they are nothing but trying to distort YHWH's instructions. Who came first Paul or Yahushua? Now if it is Paul then Yahushua is invalidated this is how many in the churches are making their conclusions to their own destruction.
The Acts of apostles are considered to be written about the same time as is Ephesians however we do not arrive at doctrine by one verse in the Bible.
Can you tell me what Hebrew word was used in that epistle to arrive at the conclusion you did? The writings were not in Greek but Hebrew/Aramaic I think you need to go look at the Torah culture and not what the Greek letter said or implied. This is how so many false interpretations are made and churches are full of apostate Christians. My heartfelt suggestion to you is go get an RSTNE Bible listed on our website, spend the money and save your life.
I hope the day you stand before Yahushua that He does not tell you to get away from me your evil doer because you broke the Torah remember your life is in your own hands and I have warned you now.
2 Peter 3:16 as also in all his [Paul's] epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which those who are untaught and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures.