99 TRUTH PAPERS (Jay Smith)
HYDE
PARK CHRISTIAN FELLOWSHIP
MUHAMMAD
(A CHRISTIAN
APOLOGETIC)
INTRODUCTION
[I] IS MUHAMMAD
A PROPHET?.
[A] THE MUSLIM POSITION:
[1] Supernatural witness points to
Muhammad's Prophethood
[2] Illiterate Creator of the Qur'an
points to his Prophethood.
[3] Prophesying points to his Prophethood.
[4] Miracles point to his Prophethood
[B] THE CHRISTIAN POSITION:
[1]
Who Qualifies as a true Prophet of God?.
(a) A Prophet must be born in the Prophetic Race
(b) A Prophet must
Speak in the Name of God (=YAHWEH or JEHOVAH)
(c) A Prophet's Message must Conform to previous Revelation
(d) A Prophet's Predictions must be Verifiable
[2] Which of these Biblical Qualifications does
Muhammad Demonstrate?
(a) Was he born in
the line of the Prophets?
(b) Did he speak in the name of "the eternal," YAHWEH?.
(c) Did Muhammad's revelation conform to the message which had preceded
him?
(d) Were any of Muhammad's predictions verifiable within his lifetime?.
[II] QUESTIONS CONCERNING MUHAMMAD'S PROPHETHOOD.
[A] WAS MUHAMMAD A SPECIFIC OR UNIVERSAL PROPHET?
[B] WAS MUHAMMAD A PROPHET OF THE JEWS?
[C] WAS MUHAMMAD A PROPHET TO THE CHRISTIANS?
[D] WAS MUHAMMAD THE SEAL OF THE PROPHETS?
[1]
What about Jesus?
[2]
What about the Other Prophets?
[3]
What about Muhammad?
(a) Muhammad's Concessions to People:.
(b) Muhammad's Sexuality:
(c) Muhammad's elevation:
(d) Muhammad's Sin:
[III] WERE THERE PROPHECIES CONCERNING MUHAMMAD?
[A] IS THERE A PREDICTION OF MUHAMMAD IN DEUTERONOMY
18?
[1]
Comparison: Who is the prophet
like Moses?
[2]
Contrast: This prophet cannot
be Muhammad
[3]
Consideration: This prophet
must be Jesus
[4]
Conclusion: Without a prediction
where is Muhammad's authority?.
[B] ARE THERE OTHER PREDICTIONS OF MUHAMMAD IN
THE OLD TESTAMENT?
[1]
Do we find Muhammad in the Old Testament?
[2]
Muslims find Muhammad in the Old Testament.
[3]
Names which point to Muhammad
[4]
Song of Solomon
[5]
The Problem with this exercise
[C] IS THERE A PROPHECY OF MUHAMMAD IN THE INJIL?
[1]
Parakletos or Periklytos?
[2]
Greek language confirms parakletos.
[3]
Greek manuscripts confirm parakletos
[4]
Therefore Muhammad could not be the parakletos
[5]
So who is the parakletos?
[6]
The answer is the Holy Spirit, who arrived 50 days later
CONCLUSION
INTRODUCTION:
All of us have had discussions with
Muslims concerning our different beliefs.
If your experience has been like mine, in order to dialogue convincingly
with a Muslim, you have had to bring up the thorny question concerning the
foundation for his or her beliefs. And
in order to speak to those foundations, you have had to speak to the issue
concerning the founder (as far as the Muslim-world is concerned) for those
beliefs.
According to Muslim Tradition (as opposed
to historical and scientific evidence) Islam was created by Allah, but the
final and truest revelations of Islam were "passed down" (Nazil)
to humanity via the angel Jibril (Gabriel), to Muhammad. Muhammad, therefore is the final authority
for Allah's revelation here on earth.
Consequently, if we are to dialogue
with a Muslim it is imperative that we begin with the expounder for their
beliefs, Muhammad. It is he who takes
on the mantle of the "seal of the prophets," the final and greatest
spokesman for God.
But where is the proof for such a title?
How is he any different from any other man or thinker or statesman
who came before; or after, for that matter?
In Isaiah 41:21-23 we find a challenge to those who claim to come in
the name of the Lord. Isaiah writes:
"Present
your case," says the Lord. "Set
forth your arguments," says Jacob's King. "Bring in your [proofs] to tell us what
is going to happen. Tell us what the
former things were, so that we may consider them, and know their final outcome.
Or declare to us the things to come, tell us what the future holds,
so that we may know you are gods."
Like Isaiah in his day, we make the
same challenge today, asking Muslims to provide us with proof for Muhammad's
prophethood. Let us then see the case
for their argument.
[I] IS MUHAMMAD A PROPHET?
Muslims
point to not just one proof but to a number of areas, which they feel, substantiate
their claim to Muhammad's prophethood. It would be helpful to look at these areas, and come to some conclusion
as to whether they are legitimate claims for his prophethood.
[A] THE MUSLIM POSITION:
The
name Muhammad, like Ahmed, means "the Praised One." It is more than likely that this was not his
initial name, but was the name attributed to him later on in life once he
became the recognized prophet to the Arabs.
Scholars believe that his childhood name was "Amin," named
after his mother "Amina" who died when he was 6 years old.
His
father was called "Abdullah," but Muhammad never knew him as he
died before he was born. After the
death of his mother Muhammad was brought up by his grandfather, and following
his death by his uncle, Abu Talib. In
his youth Muhammad travelled widely with camel trading caravans. It is at this point, according to Muslim Tradition,
that certain things happened to him which were indicators of his special status
among men.
[1]
A Supernatural Witness points to Muhammad's Prophethood
When
he was three years old, two angels came and took out his heart from his chest,
cleaned it with ice water, put it back and left. In doing so they supposedly prepared him for his mission on earth.
Another story which comes via Muslim
Tradition mentions that after the death of his grandfather Abdu-Mutalib, Muhammad
went to visit a Catholic monk with his uncle Abu-Talib. It is reported that the monk saw a cloud specifically
protect Muhammad from the sun. It
was then that he knew that he would be someone special.
At
the age of twenty-five he married Khadijah, a widow fifteen years his senior,
who was also his employer. The marriage
was a happy one, and two boys and four girls were born to them, though the
two boys did not live to a mature age. Khadija
died after twenty-five years of marriage to Muhammad. During that time Muhammad never took another
wife.
In
612 C.E. Muhammad became withdrawn and frequently went for meditation to Mt.
Hira, which is situated close to Mecca. Here,
according to tradition he had his first revelation.
In
the Mishkat-ul-Massabih, vol.IV, pp.356-357 we read about this first
revelation as reported by Aisha, Muhammad's favorite wife:
The first revelation which began to be revealed to
the Apostle of Allah was a correct dream in sleep. He did not see a dream but it came like the morning dawn. Thereafter loneliness became dear to him and
he used to seclude himself to the cave of Hira and engaged therein in deep
devotion (and it is divine service) for many nights before he went to his
house and provided himself with food therefor.
Then he would return to Khadija and take provision for the like of
them (nights) until the truth came unto him while he was in the cave of Hira. The angel appeared before him and said, "Read."
He said, "I cannot read."
He narrated: Then he took me and pressed me hard till there came great
exhaustion on me; thereafter he let me off and said, "Read."
I replied, "I cannot read."
Then he took me and pressed me hard for the second time until there
appeared a great exhaustion on me; thereafter he let me off. He said, "Read." I said, "I cannot read." Then he took me and pressed me a third time
till there appeared a great exhaustion on me; thereafter he let me off. He said, "Read in the name of your Lord
who created, created man from a clot. Read
and your Lord is the Most Generous, who taught with the pen, taught man what
he knew not." Then the prophet
returned therewith, his heart was trembling and he went to Khadijah and said,
"Wrap me up, wrap me up." Then
they wrapped him until the dread went away from him.
Like
anyone who had been grabbed by an angel (some traditions say he was grabbed
by the throat), he became frightened and ran home to his wife, who had her
own rather interesting means of delineating whether he was telling the truth
or not. She put him on each of her
hips and asked him if he still saw the angel, to which he said yes. Then she disrobed in front of him and asked
him again, and when he said no, she then believed he was receiving authentic
revelations.
Khadija
then took him to a Nestorian monk in Mecca, named Waraqa ibn Nofal, who was
translating the book of Matthew into Arabic at the time. He, upon questioning him, confirmed that Muhammad
was indeed a prophet. Unfortunately
this monk must not have translated Matthew 24:24 by this time. Had he done so, Muhammad may never have taken
the route of prophethood.
These
above accounts, according to Muslim Tradition, are how Muhammad obtained his
authority to begin his ministry, and how he received credibility as a prophet
of God, and more than that, as the penultimate prophet of God, the "seal
of all the prophets" (according to Sura 33:40).
There
are other alleged "proofs" which Muslims point to which substantiate
his claim to prophethood:
[2]
The Illiterate Creator of the Qur'an points to his Prophethood
Muslims claim
that Muhammad was illiterate. They
reason: "How can an illiterate man compose a book like the Qur'an?"
By this they imply that the authorship for the Qur'an could not have
been done by one who could not read, so consequently its composition is a
miracle, since it must have come from Allah.
They conclude, therefore, that the miracle of the Qur'an affords Muhammad
the right to claim prophethood.
To
better understand this argument, we need to refer to the passage which speaks
of his illiteracy. In Sura 7:157 we
read:
Those who follow the Apostle, the unlettered prophet,
whom they find mentioned in their own (Scriptures); in the Law and the Gospel;
for he commands them what is just and forbids them what is evil: he allows
them as lawful what is good.
In
order to understand what the words `unlettered prophet' really mean, we have
to take a look at the Arabic text. In
the Arabic it says, an-nabiyyal-ummi.
Nabi is easy to translate.
It means prophet. That is pretty
clear. The word `ummi,' however,
is not so clear. To discern its meaning
we need to refer to another verse in the Qur'an which uses it. We find it used in Sura 62:2, which says:
It is He who has sent amongst the Unlettered
an apostle from among themselves, to rehearse to them His signs, to sanctify
them, and to instruct them in Scripture and Wisdom.
Who
are the `unlettered' in this text? Yusuf
Ali's commentary makes it quite clear who these unlettered are.
He says in footnote no.5451, "The Unlettered; as applied to a
people, it refers to the Arabs, in comparison with the People of the
Book, who had a longer tradition of learning, but whose failure is referred
to in verse 5 below. As applied to individuals, it means that Allah's Revelation is for
the benefit of all men, whether they have worldly learning or not."
The word ummiyyun used in Sura 62:2 is the plural form of ummi
found in Sura 7:157. Therefore what we find is that the word ummi
was used for people who did not have the scriptures, in contrast to the Jews
and Christians. To put it simply,
they were "unscriptured." Muhammad
considered himself to be the prophet to the unscriptured, a prophet to those
who had no Book, no revelation; in other words, to the Arabs. Therefore Sura 7:157 cannot be used as proof
that Muhammad was illiterate.
What
we can say is that more than likely Muhammad was literate. He was responsible for Khadija's caravans,
had travelled widely, and must have kept records of his transactions.
The
Hadith of Ibn Sa'd alludes to the fact that he wrote. Ibn Sa'd states,
The prophet, may Allah bless him, fell ill on Thursday.
Thereupon he, i.e., Ibn `Abbas began to weep and say: `Woe be to this Thursday!
What a Thursday.' The illness of the prophet, may Allah bless
him, became severe: he said: `Bring an ink-pot and something [paper or papyrus
or any material used for writing] to write on.
I shall [write for you] a document and you will never be misguided.
(Ibn Sa'd, p.302)
This
entire argument, however, is rather moot if one considers that the Qur'an
which is in our possession today is not the original revelation which was
revealed via Muhammad to his followers. In
fact, according to tradition, it is the work of Muhammad's secretary Zaid
ibn Thabit, who finally compiled it 14 years after Muhammad's death, during
the reign of Uthman. Where, then,
is the miracle in that?
From
an historical perspective the argument falls even further into disrepute,
as many historians believe that very little of the Qur'an was actually written
by Muhammad, but was rather the result of an evolving set of polemical writings
which became canonized in the 9th-10th century, 200-300 years after the life
of Muhammad. Can we claim this a miracle?
The
further one uncovers the facts, the further it becomes clear that the Qur'an
is not the miracle which Muslims like to point to as proof for Muhammad's
credibility as a prophet.
[3]
Prophesying points to his Prophethood
Another
proof of his prophethood, according to Muslims, stems from the fact that Muhammad
prophesied events in the future, which then came to pass later on.
Only a prophet of God could know what was going to happen in the future,
and therefore Muhammad must be a prophet.
Yet, the only `real' prophecy recorded, which Muslims attribute to
Muhammad is that found in Sura 30:1-4, where it is written:
A.L.M. The
Roman Empire has been defeated. In
a land close by; but they (even) after (this) defeat of theirs, will soon
be victorious. Within a few years. With Allah is the decision, in the past and
in the future: on that day shall the Believers rejoice.
This
passage refers to the defeat of the Byzantines in Syria by the Persians under
Khusran Parvis (in A.D. 615), six years before the Hijra.
The
defeat of the Persians should take place soon- "in a small number of
years." In light of this prediction,
Abu-Bakr undertook a bet with Ubai-ibn-Khalaf that this prediction would be
fulfilled within three years. But
he was corrected by Muhammad, who stated that the "small number"
is between three and nine years (Al-Baizawi).
Muslims
tell us that the Byzantines overcame their enemies within seven years. However, the fact is that the Byzantines defeated
Persia in AD 628 (Al-Baizawi's commentary). That was twelve years after the prediction of Muhammad. Consequently, this passage does not qualify
as a prophecy, particularly as the time between the prophecy and fulfillment
was far too short, and in addition the event was easily predictable. The odds were only 50/50.
The
other `prophecies' which Muslims point to refer to Muhammad's victories and
those relating to the Qur'an itself. It
is nearly impossible to establish whether these prophecies were said before
their fulfillment. Besides, like the
previous example, they were either easily predictable, or just war-propaganda.
In this event George Bush might be called a prophet too, for he predicted
that the Gulf-coalition would win the war with Iraq.
[4]
Miracles point to his Prophethood
Muslims
also claim that Muhammad performed miracles, and this is further proof that
he was a prophet. Interestingly, despite
this claim by Muslims, the Qur'an, whose authority they refer to, denies that
Muhammad performed any miracles.
Take
for instance Sura 17:90-93. Here Muhammad
is challenged to perform miracles to prove his credibility, and he responds
by admitting that he is only a man, an apostle. There are other similar Suras which speak about
the challenge for a sign by unbelievers, followed by Muhammad's angry retort
that he was merely a "warner," a "guide," and a "bearer
of glad tidings." (refer to Suras
2:118-119; 6:37 and 124; 13:7; and 17:59).
The
Hadith, on the other hand, reports a number of miracles which Muslims are
quick to point to as further proof for Muhammad's authority. In Mishkat IV page 411 we read:
The prophet was looking while riding upon his mule
like one eagerly longing to kill them. He
said: `This was when the blood boiled in veins.' Thereafter he took some pebbles and threw them
at the faces of the infidels and then said: `Be routed, by the Lord Muhammad.'
And in Mishkat IV pages 419-420 we read:
Anas reported: A man wrote to the prophet that he
turned an apostate from Islam and joined the infidels. The prophet said: `Verily the earth will not
accept him.' Abu Talhah informed me
that he had come to the land wherein he died.
He found him thrown outside. He
said: `What is the matter with him?' They
said: `They buried him several times but the earth did not accept him.'
But
probably the most popular miracle which has been passed down by the hadith
and fomented by Muslims even today, is the splitting of the moon by Muhammad. It is recorded in Sahih Muslim IV, pg.1467:
This hadith has been transmitted on the authority
of `Abdullah b. Mas'ud (who said): We were along with Allah's Messenger (may
peace be upon him) at Mina that moon was split up into two. One of its parts was behind the mountain and
the other one was on this side of the mountain. Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) said to us: `Bear witness
to this.'
The
splitting up of the moon is not simply a fable from the Hadith, but is alluded
to in the Qur'an as well. Sura 54,
which is titled "The Moon," begins by saying, "The hour (of
judgment) is nigh, and the moon is cleft asunder..." From the context it is obvious that this was
meant to be a sign, but people rejected it as such and in their desire to
create some supernatural proof for their faith interpreted it word-for-word.
Even today you will hear Muslims claim that the American astronauts,
upon landing on the moon took pictures of a large crack, or fissure on the
moon's surface, which is what remains from Muhammad's split.
These
reports, for Christians, sound very much like the legendary stories of the
New Testament Apocrypha. Though they
are well-meaning reports, they are often very fanciful in character. However, they lack one simple ingredient: authenticity.
The
Apocrypha primarily dates from the 2nd century C.E. (i.e. 70-170 years after
the death of Jesus). The Hadith, on
the other hand, was compiled approximately 250-300 years after the Hijra. Before that time all material and stories were
passed down from generation to generation by oral tradition. Is it no wonder, then, that with each passing
generation more was added to the story in order to enhance the image and character
of the prophet?
----------
Can
we, therefore, say that these four proofs put forward by the Muslims give
validity to Muhammad's claim as a true prophet? I think not. Yet, according
to Muslim Tradition these stories are all that are needed to give Muhammad
the title "Rasu-ul-Allah."
I
dare to differ. From our discussion
above it is clear that the early supernatural witnesses are probably apocryphal
additions from later Muslim Traditions, while the claim for Muhammad's illiteracy,
though debatable, considering his background and vocation, misses the point
entirely, since (according to the new research coming out of SOAS) the Qur'an
was never written by him anyway. His
claim of prophesying, furthermore, is as valid a claim as either you or I
could give, considering he never went beyond a 50/50 odds. And the miracles attributed to him are so incredulous
that they speak more to the times of the later tenth century polemical traditions
then those of the seventh century Arabic isolation.
Obviously
the Muslims will need to come up with better defenses then these for substantiating
Muhammad's prophethood. Yet that is not all, for we as Christians are also interested in
the question of prophethood. It is
and always has been in our best interest to delineate who exactly is a true
prophet, for we have been warned to be watchful for false prophets who will
come our way (Matthew 24:24). Let's
then look at some of the criteria which our scriptures give us for describing
a true prophet.
[B] THE CHRISTIAN POSITION:
Let
me begin by asking you a question. How
would you define a prophet? Better
yet, how would you know one if you saw him, or her?
Would he or she be someone who is learned, perhaps wearing a beard
(if a male), perhaps dressed in a white robe, and carrying a staff, with fiery
eyes and booming voice, speaking with "thees" and "thous"? That is how Hollywood has portrayed a prophet.
But is this the criteria God has given for a prophet?
Is this the type of man God has chosen to represent Him on earth, to
carry His message to the world?
What
I would like to do now is try to answer the question of who, according to
the scriptures, exactly qualifies to be called a prophet? Surely, if God had sent individuals to be His representatives on
earth, He would have given us criteria by which we could recognize them, a
means by which we could know who truly was His and who truly was not. Let's then go to the scriptures, His revelation
to us, to find who God delineates as a true prophet.
[1] Who Qualifies as a true Prophet
of God?
(Amos 3:7) Surely the Sovereign Lord does nothing
without revealing His plan to His servants the prophets.
Both Muslims
and Christians would agree with this verse from Amos. God uses prophets to fulfill His purposes on earth. At times individuals are used to prophecy specific
events (such as Miriam, Balaam, and Saul in the Old Testament, and Anna in
the New Testament-Luke 2:36). The
office of a prophet, however, is a specific task given to only certain chosen
men. Many of us know the names of
the more famous prophets, such as: Moses, Abraham, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Yahya
(John the Baptist) and so on... Muslims
would add to our list of prophets another name, that of Muhammad, whom they
believe is the final and greatest of all prophets. According to the Qur'an, we read,
(Sura Al Ahzab 33:40) Muhammad is not the father of
any of your men, but (he is) the Messenger of Allah, and the Seal of the
Prophets.
Today we need to ask how it is that these
men have come to have the office of prophet? What gives them the authority for calling themselves prophet?
When we go to the scriptures we find that God delineated as qualifications
for the office of prophet four categories:
1) a prophet must be born in the prophetic race,
2) he must speak in the name of God,
3) his message must conform to the message which has gone
before, and
4) there must be verifiable accomplishments to the prophet's
predictions. Let's go through each of these four categories
one-at-a-time.
(a) A PROPHET MUST BE BORN IN THE PROPHETIC RACE
To
begin with, a prophet must be born within the line or race of the prophets.
The Bible speaks specifically what this line is.
In Genesis 12:1-3, we see that this refers to the family of Abraham
(see also Galatians 3:8), and then carries on through his son Isaac (Genesis
17:2,7-8,15-21; 21:10-12; 22:2). The
Qur'an, in Sura Al `Ankabut 29:27, also speaks specifically of this prophetic
line, saying: "and we bestowed on him Isaac and Jacob, and We establish
the Prophethood and the Scripture among his seed" (also Sura Al Jathiyah
45:16).
As
we continue on in Genesis 25:23,31-33; 26:1-2 we find that the alliance passes
to Jacob, who is subsequently named Israel (also Genesis 28:13-15; 32:28). Further on, in Genesis 49:1-4,8-10, this alliance
passes on to Judah. In fact, as we
continue throughout the Old Testament we find that God's work on earth runs
uniquely through the line of Isaac and Jacob. It is their lineage alone that God uses for His work on earth.
Even in the Deuteronomy 18 where Moses promises a prophet like unto
him, it says specifically that the prophet would come "from among your
own brothers," an Israelite of the line of Jacob.
Continuing this theme further we read
in 2 Samuel 7:4-16 and Psalms 89:35-38 that God's alliance with humanity passes
to David, and is finally fulfilled in Jesus Christ 1,000 years later (see
Matthew 22:42).
Nowhere
in any of those passages do we find any other line mentioned or acknowledged
as being chosen for the office of prophethood.
(b) A PROPHET MUST SPEAK IN THE
NAME OF GOD
(=YAHWEH or JEHOVAH)
Secondly,
a prophet of God must speak in the name of God, the unique name which He gave
His creation to use. What exactly
is that name? Traditionally it was
known as the "Tetragrammaton" (YHWH).
Today we spell it Yahweh or Jehovah depending on which
vowels are used. This is the Hebrew
name for God revealed to Moses on Mount Sinai (in Exodus 3), consisting of
the four consonants YHWH. We don't
know what vowels were used as it was never spoken audibly, due to the fact
that it was regarded by the Jews as too sacred a name to be pronounced.
In
Exodus 3:1-6, 13-15, where God talks to Moses at the burning bush, we find
God referring to Himself as "I am" which in Hebrew means "YAHWEH,"
or in English The One Who Is. This
is very significant. What God is saying
here is that this name signifies His complete self-existence, that He has
no dependence upon any other. Being
self-existent, He cannot but be self-sufficient, and therefore, all-sufficient. No-one can claim to be self-existent but God,
and thus no-one can claim this name. It
is uniquely His.
God
continues by saying that "this is my name for ever," signifying
that it is His eternal name, the name which only God can take for Himself,
and the name by which the Jews in Egypt would recognize Him (see also Ps.72:17-19
and Rev. 1:8,17).
One
can now see why the Jews in Palestine were so angry when Jesus made the same
claim, calling Himself the "I am" in John 8:24,58. They naturally picked up stones to kill Him,
as He had dared to take this name of God for Himself, and this was blasphemous,
a sin which deserved the punishment of death by stoning.
Muslims
are not familiar with the historical context of this name, nor the significance
of its meaning, therefore they laugh when they hear Jesus referring to Himself
as "I am" in John 8. It
would be helpful to take them back to the Exodus 3 passage of the burning
bush, since it is a story which exists in the Qur'an as well.
If
we were to take a survey of the names for God found in the Bible and the Qur'an,
we would find a rather interesting contrast.
The General name for God in Hebrew is Elohim, which is mentioned
2,550 times. In Arabic it is Allah. The Descriptive name for God in Hebrew is Adonai,
meaning Lord, and is mentioned only 340 times.
In Arabic the equivalent is Rabb. But the Specific and Personal name for God in Hebrew, the name which
God Himself asked Moses to use when referring to Him, is Yahweh, which
means "the One who Is." This
name is repeated 6,823 times in the Old Testament alone! Look it up for yourself.
(note:
in our English translation, Yahweh can be identified easily. Every time the word "LORD" is capitalized,
that signifies Yahweh). Thus all of
the ancient Biblical prophets speak of God using this name.
However, this name for God is not used even once in the Qur'an, and
has no equivalent in the Arabic language, the language Muslims claim God speaks.
(c) A PROPHET'S MESSAGE MUST
CONFORM TO PREVIOUS REVELATION
A third qualification of a prophet concerns his message. A prophet's message, in order to be credible must conform to the revelation which God had revealed before. God's word must remain consistent, in other words unchanging, otherwise it becomes useless, a tool in the hands of corrupt rulers and would-be prophets, bending and swaying with the whim of succeeding generations.
The
unchangeability of God's word is often repeated in the scriptures. In Deuteronomy 4:1-2; Isaiah 8:20; Matthew
5:17-18; 24:35; and Revelation 22:18-20 we find warnings not to change or
delete God's Word. God's Word must
remain constant. In Psalms 89:35 we
read that God cannot contradict His word.
The
Qur'an, as well, agrees with this directive in Suras Al An'am 6:34 and Yunus
10:64. In Sura Qaf 50:28-29 Allah
is quoted as saying: "I had already in advance sent you warning; the
Word changes not." In fact, the
Qur'an claims that it was sent to guard the former revelations (Al Ma'idah
5:47-51). Thus, that which the prophets
revealed cannot be contradictory. If
it is, it must not be trusted.
There are, however, many Qur'anic stories
which contradict the Biblical account (the revelation which came before).
We don't have time to go into all of them here, but perhaps it would
be helpful to just relate a few of the more relevant ones:
1) Many contradictions are found
concerning Abraham:
a) Abraham's
father is wrongly called Azar, instead of Terah (Al An'am 6:74 vs. Genesis
11:26).
b) He did
not raise his descendants in the valley of Mecca, but in Hebron (Genesis 13:14-18).
c) His hometown
was not called Mecca but Ur in Chaldea. Even the secular-Ebla tablets found in Syria recently give proof
for this (see Genesis 11:31).
d) He wandered
through Haran, not Arabia, and he went to Canaan, not to Mecca's valley.
The Ebla tablets prove this as well (Genesis 11:31 & 12:5)
e) He was
willing to sacrifice his son Isaac, and not Ishmael, as the Lord was to make
His covenant with the Son brought about by His making, and not the son of
the Egyptian slave, Hagar (see Genesis 17:18-21 & 22:2).
f) There
is no record that he and Ishmael went to Arabia and built the Ka'ba in Mecca,
though he did spend some time in Egypt (Genesis 12:10).
2) Muslims assume that the Arabs
are Ishmael's descendants.
a) Yet,
according to the best historical records, the first father of the Arabs was
Qahtan or Joktan. Some of his
sons names are still found in geographical locations in Arabia today, names
such as Sheba, Hazarmaveth, Ophir, and Havilah.
b) Furthermore,
Abraham's nephew Lot is another ancestor of the Arabs; as is Jacob's
twin brother Esau, the father of the Edomites and the Moabites.
c) Finally,
Keturah, Abraham's third wife, had six sons who all became forefathers
of Arabs (i.e. Sheba and Dedan, located in Yemen)(Genesis 25).
3) Other errors are found in the Qur'an
which contradict the Biblical account:
a) In the
Qur'an Mary is recorded as the sister of Aaron and the daughter
of Imran, as well as the mother of Jesus (Sura Maryam 19:28).
Yet, the Mary of the Qur'an depicted as the mother of Jesus is 1,570 years
removed from the Mary, the sister of Aaron (also referred to Miriam in the
Bible).
b) Haman,
which is not an Egyptian name but Babylonian, is mentioned as the Wazir
of the Pharaoh in Suras 28:5; 29:38: 40:25,38, yet the book of Esther correctly
lists him as an official of king Xerxes, in Babylon.
c) The Qur'an
presents a confused and often contradictory view of the Holy Spirit.
It is called God's own breath (15:29), the angel Gabriel (19:17), and
the divine inspiration (16:2).
These
are only some of the examples we could give, but they do point out that there
are very real problems concerning the conformity of God's revelation relating
to these two scriptures.
(d) A PROPHET'S PREDICTIONS MUST BE VERIFIABLE
The
final qualification of a prophet deals with the veracity of the prophet's
message, whether what he says can be verified.
A prophet shows his authenticity by predicting events which can be
verified by witnesses. Those predictions
which cover the longest duration are the most relevant and valuable for us,
and therefore we tend to focus on them. Yet,
according to the principle which is announced in Deuteronomy 18:21-22; Isaiah
43:9; and John 13:18-21, it is important that there are other predictions
which are short-term, which can be verified by contemporary's of the prophet.
These predictions serve to identify him immediately as a prophet, and
so give credibility to the longer, future predictions.
When
we take the example of Moses, we find that his prediction of the death and
defeat of the Egyptian army was immediately fulfilled (Exodus 14:13-14,27-28).
The same can be said of the prophet Isaiah, who prophesied that God
would hold back the sun for ten steps (or hours) to permit Hezekiah to defeat
his Assyrian enemy. It was fulfilled the same day (Isaiah 38:5-8).
Another prophecy by Isaiah, concerning the rout of 185,000 of Sennacherib's
soldiers came to pass the next morning (in Isaiah 37:21-38).
Imagine
if you had been with Moses or Isaiah at the time these prophecies were fulfilled.
How would you have felt? I'm
sure your estimation for these two men would have increased dramatically. That was one of the reasons for these prophecies. It gave immediate credibility to him who was
making the prophecy.
Someone
could say that it is simple to predict a victory or defeat of an enemy; as
one has a 50% chance of being correct. Therefore
other predictions were required to substantiate the claim of the prophet,
especially for later generations who did not have the ability to know the
prophet first-hand. In Deuteronomy
28:1,15,64-66, and 30:1,4-5, Moses offers a prophecy concerning God's blessings
and curses for the Children of Israel, depending on whether they obeyed or
not. These curses were fulfilled far
into the future, centuries later and consequently did not benefit those who
initially heard the prophecy.
A
prophecy by Isaiah to Hezekiah, concerning the captivity and enslavement of
his descendants by the rulers of Babylon was fulfilled 150 years later, in
606 B.C. (Isaiah 39:6-7).
Even
the prophecy concerning the fall of Babylon was fulfilled 200 years later. In fact some believe its fulfillment continues
on until today (read Isaiah 13:1,19-20).
Babylon
was destroyed in 539 B.C., 200 years after the prophecy was made by Isaiah.
Interestingly, however, up until now, 2,500 years later, no-one has
ever tried to live there. The Arabs even refuse to stay overnight, yet
they know nothing of this prediction since it does not exist in the Qur'an.
Finally
we come to another prophecy which some believe is being fulfilled in our lifetime
(see Isaiah 11:11-12). This prediction
was given by Isaiah in 750 B.C., over 140 years before the first dispersion
which occurred in 606 B.C. We know
from historical records, and the scriptures that the first return was in 536
B.C. History also tells us that the
second dispersion was in 70 C.E., while, according to some, the second return
began towards the beginning of this century, in 1900, and continues till today.
These
prophecies are especially helpful for us today, thousands of years later,
as we, in hindsight can see the authenticity of Moses's and Isaiah's calling. Due to the fact that what they said so long
ago has been fulfilled and are even now being fulfilled, what they say on
other matters then takes on added credibility, because we know that they are
truly men of God, who are being used by Him.
Since
God's fingerprint can be evidenced in those fulfilled prophecies, His fingerprint
can then be ascribed to the other claims which these men of God assert.
An
interesting point needs to be interjected here; why were there so many verifications
given by God for Isaiah? The reason
must be that he has a unique place among all the prophets, because it is he
who predicts, more than any other prophet:
1)
the coming of Jesus (prophesied in Isaiah 7:14 & 9:6, and fulfilled in
Matthew 1:22).
2)
It is Isaiah who predicts Jesus's death (prophesied in Isaiah 35:4-5 &
53:1-12, and fulfilled in Luke 7:18-22, 24-27).
3)
And finally, it is Isaiah who predicts Jesus's resurrection (prophesied in
Isaiah 53:11, and fulfilled in Luke 18:33; 24:6-7).
There
was no doubt that these were truly prophets of God, as they spoke of things
which only God could have known, both immediately so that the people of their
time could identify them as prophets, and in the long term so that we today
can acknowledge the hand of God in their lives and ministry.
[2] Which of these Biblical Qualifications does
Muhammad Demonstrate?
The
question then must be asked: which of these four Biblical qualifications does
Muhammad demonstrate? Was he born
in the prophetic race, did he speak in the name of God, did his message conform
to the message which had gone before, and was there any verifiable accomplishments
to the prophet's predictions?
(a) Was he born in the line of
the Prophets?
To
begin with, we must ask the question whether he was born in the line of the
prophets? Sura 29:27 mentions that
prophethood and the scriptures came uniquely through the seed of Isaac and
Jacob (Sura 45:16 concurs with Sura 29).
There
are no Muslims, that I am aware of, who believe Muhammad was a descendant
of Isaac. While there is an ongoing
discussion concerning the veracity of the claim for Muhammad's descendence
through Ishmael, this view is, nonetheless, widely held by Muslims today. Yet, this is a moot point, since according
to both the Bible and the Qur'an, all the prophets came in the line of Isaac,
fulfilling the promise to Abraham in Genesis 17:20-21, that only through Isaac,
and not Ishmael would the alliance with the Lord be fulfilled.
(b) Did he speak in the name
of "the eternal," YAHWEH?
Secondly,
did Muhammad speak in the name of God, using that name which God gave as a
signature for His authority, the name Yahweh?
Though the term YHWH was used 6,823 times in the Bible, it is not
used once in the Qur'an, and perhaps was not even known by Muhammad, since
if he was supposedly illiterate in his own language, Arabic, it is hardly
likely that he would have been able to read Hebrew.
Yet,
is it not curious that Muhammad, the "seal of the prophets," he
who was commissioned to bring the `final revelation' did not even know the
name of the God by whom he was commissioned?
Is it not also curious that the God of Abraham, Isaac, Moses and David
would go to the trouble of revealing His unique name in the Hebrew language,
which was then passed down from generation to generation, up to the present
day, yet somehow this name was forgotten or never revealed in the language
which Muhammad claimed was God's special language, Arabic?
Moses
could speak to the Israelites in Egypt with credibility because he spoke in
the name of God. Why then did Muhammad
presume that the descendants of those Israelites living in Medina would accept
him as their prophet if he didn't even know the true name of God?
Would
you accept my authority as a teacher of Christian apologetic, if I never once
mentioned the name of God, nor even knew that the name existed? Of course not!
A
prophet, by definition is one who comes with a message which is not his own
(the Arabic word for prophet, Rasul means "the sent one").
Consequently, in order to give meaning to the message, there needs
to be a sender, a person who created the message, whose signature goes along
with the message to identify it as coming from Him.
If I did not know who it was who sent me, my message would certainly
lose its credibility. If I spoke as a Christian yet did not know
the name of Jesus Christ, I would be a pretty miserable creature, and not
worthy of my vocation.
In
much the same way Muhammad's message completely loses its credibility since
he was never even aware of the name of the sender, Yahweh, the One
Who Is.
Consequently,
if Muhammad did not even know the name of God, nor was God's true name even
used in the language of Muhammad, then how could he claim to be truly from
God?
(c) Did Muhammad's revelation
conform to the message which had preceded him?
Thirdly,
did Muhammad's revelation conform to the message which had preceded him via
the former prophets? We have seen
that there are many contradictions between the Qur'an and the Bible, the most
damaging of which concern who Jesus is, and the reason for His mission on
earth.
Both
the Bible and the Qur'an agree that God's word cannot change, and certainly
must not contradict that which has gone before. Why then do we find all these contradictions?
If
Muhammad is responsible for receiving these contradictory revelations from
God, does it not put suspicion on his veracity as a true prophet? Certainly it does. If God had got the story right through the thousands of generations
from Abraham to Jesus, with each successive prophet agreeing with and verifying
that which had preceded him, then why all of a sudden did God get it so wrong
less then 700 years later with the prophet Muhammad?
Neither
Muslims nor Christians would blame God for the contradictions. The blame must be placed on the messenger.
Either all the previous prophets got it wrong, or the one who came
at the end did. It beggars belief to think that for thousands
of years the Jewish prophets were consistently revealing corrupted stories
which all agreed in content, with not even once trying to correct the seeming
errors; yet, finally, the last prophet got it right, and brought the message
back to what God had intended all along. It reminds me of the mother, who watching her son in a parade whispers
over to her friend, "Oh look, everyone's out of step but my Johnny boy!"
If a prophet's message goes against previous
predictions, he then can no longer qualify as a true prophet.
(d) Were any of Muhammad's predictions
verifiable within his lifetime?
And finally, were any of Muhammad's predictions verifiable within his own lifetime? Although Muhammad, on occasion, predicted the victory of Islam in the battles which were fought in Arabia, there are no other precise predictions which we know of which demonstrate that his authority came from God (the victory of a battle has a 50-50 chance of being correct, or not). In fact, this was a cause for concern even for Muhammad, who, numerous times in the Qur'an mentions the distrust by others of his inability to produce a miraculous sign which would substantiate his authority (see Suras 10:21, 13:7 & 13:27).
There
is little evidence from our scriptures which show that Muhammad had authority
to claim prophethood. He was not born
into the line of Jacob, nor did he speak in the name of Yahweh, nor did his
revelations conform to the message which preceded him, and his predictions
were not verifiable.
What,
then, must be our conclusion? In Matthew
24:24-25 we read "...false prophets will appear and perform great signs
and miracles to deceive even the elect...See I have told you ahead of time."
In Deuteronomy 18:19-22 we find an even stronger warning:
If anyone does not listen to my words that the prophet
speaks in my name, I myself will call him to account. But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name
anything I have not commanded him to say, or a prophet who speaks in the name
of other gods, must be put to death. You
may say to yourselves, `How can we know when a message has not been spoken
by the Lord?' If what a prophet proclaims
in the name of the Lord does not take place or come true, that is a message
the Lord has not spoken. That prophet
has spoken presumptuously. Do not
be afraid of him.
[II] QUESTIONS CONCERNING MUHAMMAD'S PROPHETHOOD
In this paper we have been asking the question of whether Muhammad could qualify as a true prophet of God. We posed the Muslim positions that he could: because of the supernatural witness to his prophethood during his early childhood, because of the fact that he delivered the Qur'an though he was illiterate, and because both his prophesies and miracles pointed to his prophethood.
After
presenting rebuttals to all four of these positions we followed up with four
criteria of our own, taken from scripture, to ascertain what God considers
the qualities of the office of a prophet are.
These were that he must be born in the prophetic race, that he must
speak in the name of Yahweh, that his message must conform to previous revelations,
and that his predictions must be verifiable. We concluded that Muhammad could not qualify
in any four of these categories.
Now
we take that same argument further, and ask some disturbing questions as to
whether Muhammad could qualify to be a true prophet of God, not just for the
Arabs, but for the world as a whole. We
begin, then, with that very point. Was
Muhammad called to be a prophet for the whole world, or was his calling only
limited to that of Arabia?
[A] WAS MUHAMMAD A SPECIFIC OR UNIVERSAL PROPHET?
When
we read the Qur'an we find that Muhammad understood himself at first to be
a warner to Arabia in the succession of the Biblical prophets. It is evident from these passages in the Qur'an
that he considered his duty was that of bringing the same message which can
be found in the Bible, but now within the Arabic language. The Taurat was a book for the Jews, the Injil
a book for the Christians, and now the Qur'an was a book for the Arabs.
This was his initial understanding.
Let
us look at some of the earlier suras which seem to point out that Muhammad's
specific task was simply to warn, and at the same time reveal Allah's word
in not just any language, but specifically the Arabic language:
Sura 2:119= "Verily, We have sent thee in truth as a bearer
of glad tidings and a warner: but of thee no question shall be asked
of Companions of the Blazing Fire."
Sura 14:4= "We sent an apostle except (to teach) in the
language of his (own) people, in order to make (things) clear to them."
Sura 17:93= "Say: `Glory to my Lord! am I aught but a man,
an Apostle?"
Sura 26:195,196= "In the perspicuous Arabic
tongue. Without doubt it is (announced)
in the mystic Books of former peoples."
Sura 27:91= "For me, I have been commanded to serve the
Lord of this City, Him Who has sanctified it and to Whom (belong) all
things: and I am commanded to be of those who bow in Islam to Allah's Will,"
Sura 42:7= "Thus have We sent by inspiration to thee an
Arabic Qur'an: that thou mayest warn the Mother of Cities and all around
her,"
Sura 43:3= "We have made it a Qur'an in Arabic,
that ye may be able to understand (and learn wisdom)."
Sura 46:12= "And before this, was the Book of Moses as
a guide and a mercy; and this Book confirms (it) in the Arabic tongue;
to admonish the unjust, and as Glad Tidings to those who do right."
As
we continue on through the Qur'an we find that this position changes. He becomes not just a prophet for the Arabs,
with simply an Arabic Qur'an, but enlarges on this idea to now become the
universal and the final prophet for all people.
Sura 33:40= "Muhammad is not the father of any of your
men, but (he is) the Apostle of Allah, and the Seal of the Prophets,
and Allah has full knowledge of all things."
Sura 34:28= "We have not sent thee but as a universal
(Messenger) to men, giving them glad tidings, and warning them (against
sin), but most men understand not."
While
in Mecca, at least, where the former Suras quoted above were written, Muhammad
considered himself as a warner to the Arab peoples. This position contradicts the claim by Muslims today that Muhammad
was always a universal messenger for all peoples in all times.
The
term "Arabic Qur'an" (in Suras 42:7; 43:3 and 46:12-above) seems
to presupposes that there was at least one other Qur'an. This more than likely is referring to the Hebrew and possibly the
Greek "Qur'an" (which are the Old and New Testament). Muslims would not say that they are invalidated
by the Arabic Qur'an, but are rather confirmed by it.
There
is a problem, however. An Arabic Qur'an
was not announced in "the mystic books of the former peoples" (Sura
26:196). To say the least, there is
no such book available today which speaks of this "Arabic Qur'an,"
in contrast to the former "Qur'ans."
Neither was it known at the time of Muhammad, as we have many manuscripts
in our possession with which to verify if such an announcement had been made.
So,
initially Muhammad was only a messenger for the Arab people. He saw the polytheism which were pervasive
in Arabia, and sought to eradicate it with the `messages' he was receiving
via the angel Gabriel.
Why
then, did he go universal? There are
those who believe this probably came about due to his successes on the battle-field.
As his prominence grew, so did his authority over people who were not
necessarily Arab. In other words, his supernatural monotheistic
message, had to keep pace with the natural polytheistic reality on the ground.
Suras 33:40 and 34:28 provided him with the authority to do so.
A
more likely scenario is that the later redactors of the Qur'an imposed this
universal application on Muhammad, once the borders of Islam had reached beyond
the Hijaz (Arabia). Without
eradicating the Suras which speak of his specific Arabic mission, they simply
imposed this new category while applying the law of abrogation to the former
Suras.
[B] WAS MUHAMMAD A PROPHET OF THE JEWS?
The
second question we ask is whether Muhammad was a prophet to the Jews? In Medina were a number of Jewish groups called
the Kahinan. They were the
wealthiest inhabitants of Medina, and lived in fortified forts surrounding
the city. There were three principle
tribes living in Medina (according to Muslim Tradition): the Kaynuka,
the al-Nadir, and the Kurayza.
They all had good relations with the Jews of the north (especially
in Khaybar).
During
his first year in Medina Muhammad devoted considerable attention to the Jewish
inhabitants there, describing himself as their prophet, who could be placed
in the long line of prophets.
To
appease them, he adopted many of their religious observances. Some of these were: 1) keeping the 10th of
Muharram as a fast day, much like the Yom Kippur fast, 2) performing
the 3-daily prayer rituals (versus the two Salats kept by Muhammad
before the Hijra, while still in Mecca), 3) the weekly community worship services
in the early afternoons on fridays (following the Jewish Sabbath day of preparation). Note: this also made common-sense since friday
was the market day, the day when the largest number of people would have been
in Medina. And finally, 4) Muhammad
also adopted the north-facing Qibla, the practice of facing Jerusalem
when praying.
It
soon became clear, however, that the Jews in Medina were not going to accept
Muhammad's claim to prophethood. These
were for a number of reasons, which we can find in Sura 17:90-93. The Jews would not accept an Arabic speaking
prophet. They had never accepted Jesus
as a prophet, and he was an Aramaic speaking Jew! So why should they change now?
Their principle requests, as we can derive from Sura 17, was that Muhammad
present them with a few "superfluous" miracles.
In
Sura 3:183 and 184 the Jews ask for a sign similar to that of Elijah for proof
of his prophethood. Muhammad retorts
that this has always been the way with previous prophets. In Suras 2:118-119; 6:37,124; 13:7; 17:59 the
Jews also ask for a sign, to which Muhammad responds that even if a sign were
given, like those of the earlier prophets, they would not believe it.